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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2023 Tier I — 14 July 2023, Shift 2 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2023-tier-1-14-jul-shift-2/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2023 Tier I — 14 July 2023, Shift 2

14 July 2023 · 11:45 AM–12:45 PM95 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

5 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 14 July 2023, 11:45 AM–12:45 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series. MN _ _ SM _ PO _ _ N _ OSM _ P _ S

    • (a) PONSMPNO
    • (b) PNOSMPNO
    • (c) PONMSPNO
    • (d) PONSNOMP
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Figure for question 2

    • (a) Figure for question 2, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 2, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 2, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 2, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. Figure for question 3

    • (a) Figure for question 3, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 3, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 3, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 3, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. Which number should replace the question mark (?) in the following number series? 39, 42, 48, 57, 69, ?, 102

    • (a) 87
    • (b) 79
    • (c) 81
    • (d) 84
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed) (8, 44, 3) (12, 60, 3)

    • (a) (12, 68, 5)
    • (b) (8, 50, 2)
    • (c) (17, 56, 9)
    • (d) (23, 98, 5)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 6. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 33, 80, 108, ?, 183, 230, 258

    • (a) 160
    • (b) 155
    • (c) 143
    • (d) 138
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. Figure for question 7

    • (a) Figure for question 7, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 7, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 7, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 7, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation. 150 * 3 * 10 * 2 * 7 * 46

    • (a) ÷, +, −, ×, =
    • (b) −, ×, +, ÷, =
    • (c) +, −, ÷, ×, =
    • (d) ×, +, ÷, −, =
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 9. Select the set in which the number are related in the same way as the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (31, 47, 35) (51, 67, 55)

    • (a) (33, 47, 35)
    • (b) (32, 39, 27)
    • (c) (13, 29, 17)
    • (d) (21, 36, 35)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. Figure for question 10

    • (a) Figure for question 10, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 10, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 10, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 10, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 11. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Orthopaedic : Bone :: Cardiologist : ?

    • (a) Kidney
    • (b) Heart
    • (c) Lungs
    • (d) Brain
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 12. Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the following blanks, will complete the letter-series. _ V J R W B _ _ R W B V L _ _ B V _ _ W

    • (a) A V K R W M R
    • (b) A W K R X N R
    • (c) B V K R W M R
    • (d) B W K R W M R
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. Three statements are given, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some coolers are mixers. Some mixers are scissors. Some scissors are knives. Conclusions: I. Some knives are mixers. II. Some scissors are coolers. III. Some knives are coolers. IV. No knife is a mixer.

    • (a) Only conclusions III and IV follow
    • (b) Only conclusions I and III follow
    • (c) None of the conclusions follow
    • (d) Only conclusions II and IV follow
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. NHT : PEX : : KDF : MAJ :: UMR : ?

    • (a) WJV
    • (b) VJW
    • (c) WPN
    • (d) XIW
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. Which of the following is a leap year?

    • (a) 1076
    • (b) 1675
    • (c) 1354
    • (d) 1998
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 16. Pointing to Suresha, I said, “She is the daughter of the brother of the son of my wife.” How am I related to Suresha?

    • (a) Grandmother
    • (b) Grand aunt
    • (c) Grandfather
    • (d) Grand uncle
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 17. Figure for question 17

    • (a) 6
    • (b) 5
    • (c) 1
    • (d) 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 18. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. WOODLAND : ZIRXOUQX :: PERIODIC : SYUCRXLW :: MAGAZINE : ?

    • (a) HERDWBMO
    • (b) LPWXSYCZ
    • (c) NSCAQOLP
    • (d) PUJUCCQY
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 19. Three of the following four triads are alike in a certain way as they are formed by performing same mathematical operations among themselves and thus form a group. Which triad does NOT belong to that group?

    • (a) 36 : 13 : 7
    • (b) 16 : 9 : 5
    • (c) 72 : 16 : 8
    • (d) 1 : 3 : 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  20. 20. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 294 + 14 × 4 ÷ 16 - 67 = 33

    • (a) + and ÷
    • (b) × and ÷
    • (c) + and -
    • (d) - and ÷
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  21. 21. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

    • (a) KPH
    • (b) GTD
    • (c) DWA
    • (d) EVC
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  22. 22. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /Subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed) (14, 378, 9) (18, 432, 8)

    • (a) (5, 125, 8)
    • (b) (15, 405, 9)
    • (c) (15, 305, 7)
    • (d) (11, 265, 8)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. Figure for question 23

    • (a) Figure for question 23, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 23, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 23, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 23, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 24. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All rice are grains. All pulses are grains. All grains are edibles. Conclusions: I. All rice are edibles. II. All pulses are edible. III. Some edibles are grains.

    • (a) All conclusions follow
    • (b) Only conclusions II and III follow
    • (c) Only conclusions I and II follow
    • (d) Only conclusions I and III follow
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

General Awareness

  1. 1. Which of the following musical instruments were played by the musicians such as Shakoor Khan and Pandit Ram Narayan?

    • (a) Sarangi
    • (b) Shehnai
    • (c) Guitar
    • (d) Veena
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. According to IBEF 2021, the Indian pharmaceutical industry ranks _____ in the world on the basis of volume.

    • (a) 9th
    • (b) 5th
    • (c) 11th
    • (d) 3rd
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. When did Linus Carl Pauling receive the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for ‘his research into the nature of the chemical bond and its applications to the elucidation of the structure of complex substances’?

    • (a) 1954
    • (b) 1950
    • (c) 1956
    • (d) 1958
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Daskathia of _________ is the tribal dance performed by two males depicting the historic and Puranic events.

    • (a) Uttar Pradesh
    • (b) Gujarat
    • (c) Goa
    • (d) Odisha
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case deals with violation of rights under____________.

    • (a) Article 16
    • (b) Article 21
    • (c) Article 14
    • (d) Article 19
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. Which of the following is the red algae?

    • (a) Rhodophyceae
    • (b) Chlorophyceae
    • (c) Liverwort
    • (d) Phaeophyceae
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 7. What will be the atomic number of an element X which is placed in period 2 and group 17?

    • (a) 8
    • (b) 7
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 9
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 8. In which two consecutive years was there no chief guest at the Republic Day celebrations of India?

    • (a) 2021 and 2022
    • (b) 2019 and 2020
    • (c) 2020 and 2021
    • (d) 2018 and 2019
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 9. Fisher’s quantity theory is explained by his famous equation given as ________.

    • (a) MP = VT
    • (b) MV = PT
    • (c) MT = PV
    • (d) PV = MV
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 10. Before the rise of the modern industrial system, Indian exports consisted chiefly of manufactures like________.

    • (a) electricals
    • (b) chemicals
    • (c) light machinery
    • (d) cotton and silk fabrics
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 12. Guru Bipin Singh, a Nrityacharya awardee, Sangeet Natak Akademi awardee and Kalidas Samman awardee, was renowned for promoting which classical dance form?

    • (a) Manipuri
    • (b) Kuchipudi
    • (c) Odissi
    • (d) Kathak
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 13. Who holds the authority of transferring judges from one High court to another High Court?

    • (a) The senior most judge of Supreme Court
    • (b) The chief justice of India
    • (c) The President of India
    • (d) The law minister of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 14. ___________ is the process of complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, moisture, or bacterial action that spoils food.

    • (a) Rancidification
    • (b) Hydrogenation
    • (c) Auto-oxidation
    • (d) Auto reduction
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 15. Which of the following is a Tibeto-Burmese language?

    • (a) Odia
    • (b) Tripuri
    • (c) Assamese
    • (d) Tulu
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 17. Select the FALSE statement from the given options.

    • (a) Baikal rocks are formed from the dissolved materials that precipitate from the solution.
    • (b) The sedimentary rocks are formed by the deposition and subsequent cementation of that material within bodies of water and at the surface of the earth.
    • (c) Metamorphic rocks may be formed simply by being deep beneath the Earth’s surface, subjected to high temperatures and the great pressure of the rock layers above it.
    • (d) Igneous rock is formed through the cooling and solidification of magma or lava.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 18. Pathans in North-West India organised the society of Khudai Khidmatgars, popularly known as Red Shirt, under whose leadership?

    • (a) Muhammad Ali
    • (b) MA Ansari
    • (c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
    • (d) Hasrat Mohani
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 19. In which of the following States/Union Territories were the 36th National Games held?

    • (a) Rajasthan
    • (b) New Delhi
    • (c) Gujarat
    • (d) Kerala
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 20. Which of the following was established in Bombay in 1875?

    • (a) Satyashodhak Samaj
    • (b) Aligarh movement
    • (c) Brahma Samaj
    • (d) Arya Samaj
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 21. Which of the following options conveys the meaning of the word ‘Republic’ in the Indian Constitution?

    • (a) Elected head
    • (b) Nominated head
    • (c) Subordinate head
    • (d) Hereditary head
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 22. Who among the following was defeated in the battle of Chanderi in 1528?

    • (a) Shershah Suri
    • (b) Babur
    • (c) Sikandar Lodi
    • (d) Medini Rai
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 23. The venue of the 2020 Olympic Games was _________.

    • (a) Sydney
    • (b) Rio
    • (c) Tokyo
    • (d) Los Angeles
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 24. When was the International Day of the Girl Child 2021 celebrated?

    • (a) 14 October
    • (b) 12 October
    • (c) 13 October
    • (d) 11 October
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  23. 25. In January 2022, which State Government has extended its integrated initiative for the empowerment of persons with disabilities (PwDs) — the Bhima Bhoi Bhinnakhyama Samarthya Abhiyan (BBSA) – for the next five years?

    • (a) Odisha
    • (b) Manipur
    • (c) Jharkhand
    • (d) West Bengal
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. In a race around a circular cycling track of 75 km, two cyclists are riding at a speed of 30 km/h and 25 km/h. After what time (in hours) will they meet at the point from where they started their journey?

    • (a) 16
    • (b) 7
    • (c) 14
    • (d) 15
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. P is two times more efficient than Q. P is able to complete a piece of work in 40 days less than Q. Working together, the whole number of days taken by them to complete the work is: (Round off to the nearest integer)

    • (a) 26
    • (b) 25
    • (c) 27
    • (d) 28
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. In an election, 2% persons enrolled in the voter list did not participate and 500 votes were invalid. Two candidates A and B fought the election, and A defeated B by 200 votes. If 43% of the persons enrolled in the voter list casted their votes in favour of A, then what is the number of the total casted votes?

    • (a) 2450
    • (b) 2800
    • (c) 3000
    • (d) 3250
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Evaluate the following. sin 25° sin 65° – cos 25° cos 65°.

    • (a) 40
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 0
    • (d) 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 5. Figure for question 5

    • (a) 15,570
    • (b) 15,750
    • (c) 17,550
    • (d) 7,875
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. Figure for question 6

    • (a) 1236
    • (b) 488
    • (c) 536
    • (d) 1256
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. X and Y can complete a work in 9 days and 36 days, respectively. X begins to do the work and they work alternately one at a time for one day each. The whole work will be complete in:

    • (a) Figure for question 7, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 7, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 7, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 7, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. A shopkeeper uses 940 gm weight in place of one kg weight. He sells it at 4% profit. What will be the actual profit percentage? (rounded off to two decimal places)

    • (a) Figure for question 8, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 8, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 8, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 8, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 9. If D is the midpoint of BC in △ABC and ∠A = 90⁰, then AD = _______.

    • (a) Figure for question 9, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 9, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 9, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 9, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk, costing₹32 per litre, in order to get a mixture costing₹28 per litre?

    • (a) Figure for question 10, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 10, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 10, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 10, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. 5 women and 9 girls earn a total of ₹18,720 in 9 days, while 9 women and 16 girls earn a total of ₹ 52,080 in 14 days. How much will 12 women and 7 girls together earn (in ₹) in 13 days?

    • (a) 42510
    • (b) 41990
    • (c) 42380
    • (d) 42120
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. An electronic store owner allows two successive discounts of 20% and 25% on each item. The store has a reward points scheme which enables a customer to get free shopping worth ₹0.10 on every 1 reward point credited to the customer’s account on previous purchases from the store. A customer decides to buy a laptop that is marked at ₹72,000. What will be its net selling price if he has 2850 reward points to his credit?

    • (a) ₹43,200
    • (b) ₹42,915
    • (c) ₹42,215
    • (d) ₹42,942
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 13. Figure for question 13

    • (a) Figure for question 13, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 13, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 13, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 13, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. Evaluate the following: cos(36° + A).cos(36° − A) + cos(54° + A).cos(54° − A)

    • (a) sin 2A
    • (b) cos A
    • (c) sin A
    • (d) cos 2A
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 15. Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows. The pie-chart shows the expenditure incurred in the preparation of a book by a publisher, under various heads. Figure for question 15 What is the difference between the angle of pie-chart showing the expenditure incurred on binding and printing?

    • (a) 15°
    • (b) 20°
    • (c) 18°
    • (d) 22°
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 16. If the total surface area of a cube is 24 sq.units, then what is the volume of the cube?

    • (a) 8 cu.units
    • (b) 16 cu.units
    • (c) 10 cu.units
    • (d) 4 cu.units
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 17. Figure for question 17

    • (a) Figure for question 17, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 17, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 17, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 17, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 18. Let ABC, PQR be two congruent triangles such that angle A = angle P = 90°. If BC = 13cm, PR = 5cm, find AB.

    • (a) 12 cm
    • (b) 8 cm
    • (c) 10 cm
    • (d) 5 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 19. The mean proportion between 7 and 112 is:

    • (a) 42
    • (b) 28
    • (c) 21
    • (d) 14
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. 4 women or 6 boys can finish a work in the same number of days. A man can finish it in 60 days. In how many days can 5 women finish the work, working together every day?

    • (a) 4
    • (b) 10
    • (c) 8
    • (d) 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 22. Figure for question 22

    • (a) Figure for question 22, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 22, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 22, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 22, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 23. If the simple interest at the same interest rate on ₹500 for 4 years and ₹700 for 2 years, combined together, is ₹280, then what is the rate of interest?

    • (a) Figure for question 23, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 23, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 23, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 23, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 24. A thief steals a van at 3:00 a.m. and drives it at a speed of 57 km/h. The thief is discovered at 4:00 a.m. and the owner starts the chase with another van at a speed of 76 km/h. At what time will he catch the thief?

    • (a) 7:30 a.m.
    • (b) 7:00 p.m.
    • (c) 7:00 a.m.
    • (d) 6:00 a.m.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  24. 25. The present age of Rahim is five times the present age of his daughter, Savita. Seven years from now, Rahim will be three times as old as Savita. What is the present age (in years) of Rahim?

    • (a) 45
    • (b) 35
    • (c) 40
    • (d) 30
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. The boys and the teacher wants to win.

    • (a) wants to won
    • (b) want to won
    • (c) want win
    • (d) want to win
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. He was compelled by everyone to join the group.

    • (a) Demur
    • (b) Obscured
    • (c) Confessed
    • (d) Induced
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To kick the bucket

    • (a) To be ill
    • (b) Be sad
    • (c) Be happy
    • (d) To die
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. Identify and correct the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence. The Collector paid floral tributes to the statue of Mahatma Gandhi after hosting the flag.

    • (a) floaral
    • (b) stateu
    • (c) trebutes
    • (d) hoisting
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. Do you know the old adage 'the show must go on’?

    • (a) Misconstruction
    • (b) Rebuke
    • (c) Dare
    • (d) Addiction
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 6. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. She reminds me always that I ________ to be a little more careful.

    • (a) had
    • (b) have
    • (c) must
    • (d) has
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank. Mr. Khanna is quite ___________(callous) towards the victims of earthquake.

    • (a) rationalistic
    • (b) unsympathetic
    • (c) sympathetic
    • (d) nondiplomatic
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 8. Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up and named P, Q, R, S. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. (S1) Newspapers, especially of the popular variety, aim to do two things: to inform and to entertain. (P) Entertainment may be principally found in the centre pages of the newspaper in some of the feature articles and in some local news stories. (Q) The principal aim of the short news report on the front pages is to inform. (R) Most newspapers are published daily, and the news reporters must make sure that they have up-to-the minute news. (S) In their news reports they will aim to create a sense of immediacy, to convey the impression that they have ‘rushed’ the news to the reader and ‘that the information contained is the very latest.’ (S6) Reporters also wish to create a sense of authenticity, that is, that their news is accurate and genuine.

    • (a) Q, S, R, P
    • (b) R, P, S, Q
    • (c) S, R, P, Q
    • (d) P, Q, R, S
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the sentence. Ready She was preparing dinner in an organised manner using well-equipped tools while listening to the radio.

    • (a) Preparing
    • (b) Listening
    • (c) Organised
    • (d) Equipped
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 11. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Hostile

    • (a) Pleasant
    • (b) Hospitable
    • (c) Empathetic
    • (d) Unfriendly
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 12. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. The fact that God created man in his personal view by giving him an intellectual spirit elevates him above the beasts of the field.

    • (a) own glory
    • (b) own capacity
    • (c) own image
    • (d) own idea
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 13. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. During the summer, I noticed that the leaves of the tree were beginning to wither. B. I am especially proud of it, not only because it has survived several winters, but because it occasionally produces luscious peaches. C. The tree had grown against a warm wall on a sheltered side of the house. D. Last summer, I spent many days in the garden watching thousands of ants crawling up the trunk of my prize peach tree.

    • (a) DCBA
    • (b) ABCD
    • (c) CDBA
    • (d) BDAC
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 14. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Was the bag packed by Mary?

    • (a) Was Mary pack the bag?
    • (b) Is Mary packing the bag?
    • (c) Do Mary pack the bag?
    • (d) Did Mary pack the bag?
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 15. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Optimistic’ from the given sentence. After the incident, Radha prepared herself to stay positive even in gloomy days.

    • (a) stay
    • (b) incident
    • (c) positive
    • (d) gloomy
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 16. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. After knowing truth, / the jury took the right decision / in the case.

    • (a) The jury took the right decision
    • (b) In the case
    • (c) After knowing truth
    • (d) No error
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 17. In the following sentence, four words are underlined, out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word. A lot of spontanity is required from the speaker in an extempore speech. The speaker is expected to brainstorm ideas and give speech instantaneously .

    • (a) instantaneously
    • (b) extempore
    • (c) brainstorm
    • (d) spontanity
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 18. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A person who believes that laws and governments are not necessary.

    • (a) Antagonist
    • (b) Antichrist
    • (c) Anarchist
    • (d) Adversary
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 19. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Miss the boat

    • (a) Missing a good opportunity
    • (b) Missing your medium of travel
    • (c) Missing good moments of your life
    • (d) Being too late
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 20. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. The outcome is much more likely to be favourable if there is substantial international aid than if there is not. B. Many of the underdeveloped countries will promote the growth of their economies in one way or the other, no matter whether they receive substantial outside aid in the process or not. C. By substantial aid I mean not only large amounts of technical assistance but also of capital. D. The character of that development, however, is likely to be strongly influenced by the types of and amounts of aid available.

    • (a) BDAC
    • (b) ABDC
    • (c) DABC
    • (d) DBCA
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Sun is the star at the center of (1) __________ Solar System. It is a nearly perfect ball of hot plasma. The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in (2) ____________ around the world. It keeps our planet warm enough for living things to grow. It gives us light so we can see. It is by far the most important (3) _________of energy for life on Earth. It is about a hundred times as wide (4)________ the Earth. If there were no sun, many things wouldn’t occur like photosynthesis or the presence of oxygen, which would have caused no (5) __________ of life.

  21. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

    • (a) typical
    • (b) huge
    • (c) the
    • (d) a
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

    • (a) cultures
    • (b) processes
    • (c) scenes
    • (d) types
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

    • (a) gesture
    • (b) source
    • (c) control
    • (d) symbol
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

    • (a) about
    • (b) as
    • (c) like
    • (d) than
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

    • (a) skill
    • (b) end
    • (c) enhancement
    • (d) existence
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(a)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(a)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(a)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(c)
Q 20
(a)
Q 21
(d)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(a)

General Awareness

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(a)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(a)
Q 9
(b)
Q 10
(d)
Q 12
(a)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(b)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(c)
Q 20
(d)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(d)
Q 23
(c)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(a)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(c)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(c)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(d)
Q 15
(c)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(c)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(c)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(b)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(a)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(a)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(a)
Q 14
(d)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(a)
Q 21
(c)
Q 22
(a)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(b)
Q 25
(d)