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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 13 September, Shift 3 · exambharo.com/ssc-cgl/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2024-tier-1-13-sep-shift-3/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 13 September, Shift 3

13 September 2024 · 4:00 PM–5:00 PM98 of the paper’s 99 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

Left out of the original paper: 1 (any question that needs a figure, symbol or formatting we cannot show, or whose text or answer did not come through cleanly from the official document).

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 13 September 2024, 4:00 PM–5:00 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. In a certain code language, 'A ? B' means ‘A is the mother of B’, 'A ! B' means ‘A is the wife of B’, 'A & B' means ‘A is the brother of B’ and 'A x B' means ‘A is the father of B’. Which of the following means that Z is the wife's father's mother of L?

    • (a) Z ? B x T & J ! L
    • (b) Z ? B ! T & J x L
    • (c) Z ! B x T ? J & L
    • (d) Z & B ! T x J ? L
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Magician : Magic :: Dancer : ?

    • (a) Movie
    • (b) Song
    • (c) Theatre
    • (d) Dance
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. In a certain code language, ‘VAT’ is coded as ‘43’ and ‘AWW’ is coded as ‘47’. How will ‘ZHU’ be coded in that language?

    • (a) 62
    • (b) 55
    • (c) 48
    • (d) 63
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. The following contains two pairs of words which are related to each other in a certain way. Three of the following four word-pairs are alike as these have the same relationship and thus form a group. Which word-pair does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

    • (a) Joy - Peace
    • (b) Misery - Happiness
    • (c) Problem - Concern
    • (d) Worry - Fear
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. 13 is related to 117 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 23 is related to 207. To which of the following is 51 related, following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

    • (a) 350
    • (b) 459
    • (c) 359
    • (d) 450
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Kaziranga : Rhinoceros

    • (a) Gir : Leopards
    • (b) Periyar : Elephants
    • (c) Gahirmatha : Lions
    • (d) Ranthambore : Peacocks
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? BHVC, ZLTG, XPRK, ? , TXNS

    • (a) VTPN
    • (b) VTPO
    • (c) VPTO
    • (d) VPTN
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?Figure for question 8

    • (a) Figure for question 8, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 8, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 8, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 8, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Each of the letters in the word ‘REDUCTION’ are arranged in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the letter which is the third from the left end and the fourth from the left end in the group of letters thus formed?

    • (a) One
    • (b) Two
    • (c) Four
    • (d) Three
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Six letters B, F, D, X, N and A are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figures below. Find the letter on the face opposite to D.Figure for question 10

    • (a) A
    • (b) F
    • (c) N
    • (d) B
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 11. Six letters G, H, I, J, K and L are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure below. Find the letter on the face opposite to G.Figure for question 11

    • (a) J
    • (b) K
    • (c) I
    • (d) L
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

    • (a) 82 – 8 – 2
    • (b) 164 – 10 – 4
    • (c) 63 – 6 – 3
    • (d) 360 – 12 – 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 13. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 2864 × 4 – 168 ÷ 2 + 69 = ?

    • (a) 938
    • (b) 389
    • (c) 839
    • (d) 983
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 22, 23, 27, 54, 70, 195, ?

    • (a) 231
    • (b) 200
    • (c) 230
    • (d) 196
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 63 : 441 51 : 357

    • (a) 68 : 340
    • (b) 54 : 324
    • (c) 89 : 96
    • (d) 39 : 273
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 16. Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 9 – 27 – 31 – 36; 10 – 30 – 34 – 39

    • (a) 5 – 15 – 19 – 24
    • (b) 8 – 24 – 28 – 35
    • (c) 11 – 33 – 38 – 44
    • (d) 15 – 45 – 50 – 55
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 17. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘ב are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 27 − 6 + 4 × 8 ÷ 6 = ?

    • (a) 20
    • (b) 18
    • (c) 16
    • (d) 22
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 18. How many squares are there in the figure shown below?Figure for question 18

    • (a) 9
    • (b) 11
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 13
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 19. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.Figure for question 19

    • (a) Figure for question 19, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 19, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 19, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 19, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?Figure for question 20

    • (a) Figure for question 20, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 20, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 20, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 20, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  21. 21. Select the option that represents the letters that when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the letter series. _ O _ O _ _ O _ P _ O _

    • (a) PPOOPOP
    • (b) OOPPPOO
    • (c) OPOPOOP
    • (d) PPOOOPO
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 22. In a certain code language, 'ESTATE' is written as '80', 'FAMOUS' is written as '85', how will 'FOREST' be written in that language?

    • (a) 88
    • (b) 90
    • (c) 93
    • (d) 83
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 23. Figure for question 23

    • (a) 66
    • (b) 15
    • (c) 88
    • (d) 81
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 24. Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.Figure for question 24

    • (a) Figure for question 24, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 24, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 24, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 24, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  25. 25. Figure for question 25

    • (a) 26
    • (b) 23
    • (c) 27
    • (d) 30
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

General Awareness

  1. 1. Where was the Hindu College established in the year 1791?

    • (a) Benaras
    • (b) Patna
    • (c) Kolkata
    • (d) Mathura
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. In which year was the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed?

    • (a) 1929
    • (b) 1941
    • (c) 1931
    • (d) 1935
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. Which of the following is NOT the socio-economic objective of Industrial Policy Statement 1980?

    • (a) Higher employment generation
    • (b) Promotion of export-oriented industries
    • (c) Consumer protection against high prices and bad quality
    • (d) Allowing the maximum foreign direct investment
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. The name ‘Piyadassi’ is associated with whom among the following Mauryan kings?

    • (a) Ashoka
    • (b) Brihadratha
    • (c) Bindusara
    • (d) Chandragupta Maurya
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 5. In which of the following years will India host the World Badminton Championship?

    • (a) 2025
    • (b) 2027
    • (c) 2026
    • (d) 2028
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 6. Which of the following plants is used to cure cold and cough?

    • (a) Arjun
    • (b) Babool
    • (c) Jamun
    • (d) Tulsi
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. Where is the Gulf of Mannar located?

    • (a) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the southern coast of Sri Lanka
    • (b) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the eastern coast of Sri Lanka
    • (c) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the north-western coast of Sri Lanka
    • (d) Between the south-eastern tip of India and the western coast of Sri Lanka
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 8. Name a common electrolyte disorder that occurs when the amount of sodium in your blood becomes abnormally low.

    • (a) Hypokalemia
    • (b) Hyperkalemia
    • (c) Hypernatremia
    • (d) Hyponatremia
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Who was the player of the match in the semi-final of the T20 Women's World Cup 2023 played between India and Australia?

    • (a) Meg Lanning
    • (b) Ashleigh Gardner
    • (c) Harmanpreet kaur
    • (d) Deepti Sharma
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 10. Who among the following won a Gold Medal at the 2021 World Cadet Wrestling Championship held in Budapest, Hungary?

    • (a) Vinesh Phogat
    • (b) Priya Malik
    • (c) Geeta Phogat
    • (d) Pooja Dhanda
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. What is the SI unit of current?

    • (a) Metre
    • (b) Ampere
    • (c) Volt
    • (d) Ohm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 12. How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

    • (a) 20
    • (b) 15
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 12
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 13. Sangeet Natak Akademy Awardee Sulochana Chavan was a famous ________ singer.

    • (a) Ghumar
    • (b) Giddha
    • (c) Jhumair
    • (d) Lavani
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. Which of the following is NOT a component of a flower?

    • (a) Androecium
    • (b) Spines
    • (c) Calyx
    • (d) Corolla
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. Which is the colloquial term to describe the occurrence of pre-monsoon rains in India especially in parts of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?

    • (a) Nor Westers
    • (b) Kalbaisakhi
    • (c) Orange showers
    • (d) Mango showers
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 16. Tera Tali folk dance is primarily associated with which of the following states?

    • (a) Rajasthan
    • (b) Haryana
    • (c) Madhya Pradesh
    • (d) Assam
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 17. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Directive Principles of State Policy as __________of the Indian constitution.

    • (a) identity card of the constitution
    • (b) The mostprecious part of the constitution
    • (c) soul of the state
    • (d) a novel feature of the constitution
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 18. Which of the following crops is NOT grown during the Zaid season in India?

    • (a) Rice
    • (b) Muskmelon
    • (c) Watermelon
    • (d) Cucumber
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 19. Which of the following is an example of a non-tax revenue source for the government?

    • (a) Value-added tax
    • (b) Fees and fines
    • (c) Corporate income tax
    • (d) Personal income tax
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. The festival of ‘Rath Yatra’ of Puri in Odisha is dedicated to which deity?

    • (a) Lord Jagannath
    • (b) Lord Shiva
    • (c) Lord Ganesha
    • (d) Lord Hanuman
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  21. 21. Sangeet Kala Acharya Award is given by which organisation every year since 1993?

    • (a) Subramaniam Academy of Performing Arts
    • (b) Madras Music Academy
    • (c) Calcutta School of Music
    • (d) Shankar Mahadevan Academy
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 22. As per article 123, the ordinance making power is the most important legislative power of ____________.

    • (a) Rajya Sabha
    • (b) Chief Justice of India
    • (c) President
    • (d) Legislative council
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 23. Grignard reagent is represented as:

    • (a) H-Mg-H
    • (b) CH3-Ca-F
    • (c) CH3-Be-F
    • (d) CH3-Mg-Cl
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. Which of the following schemes was launched for the welfare of the unorganised sector workers and labourers on 26 August 2021?

    • (a) e-Shram Portal
    • (b) PM Daksh Yojana
    • (c) Gram Ujala Scheme
    • (d) PM Mentoring Yuva Scheme
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  25. 25. Who among the following was the Vakil under the reign of Mughal Emperor, Akbar, who received the title of Khan-i-Khanan?

    • (a) Bairam Khan
    • (b) Mulla do-Piyaza
    • (c) Birbal
    • (d) Raja Todar Mal
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. In the following sets, which set represents the angles of a triangle?

    • (a) {30°,50°,90°}
    • (b) {80°,50°,90°}
    • (c) {30°,60°,90°}
    • (d) {30°,50°,110°}
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 2. If the curved surface area of a cylinder is 880 cm2 , then the product of its height and radius is:

    • (a) 120 cm2
    • (b) 140 cm2
    • (c) 90 cm2
    • (d) 220 cm2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 3. Figure for question 3

    • (a) 1479
    • (b) 1276
    • (c) 1364
    • (d) 1113
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. Figure for question 4

    • (a) 9.5
    • (b) 7.5
    • (c) 6.5
    • (d) 8.5
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔRST and ΔABC are 26 cm and 39 cm, respectively. If AB = 24 cm, then RS is ___.

    • (a) 24 cm
    • (b) 16 cm
    • (c) 18 cm
    • (d) 36 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. Figure for question 6

    • (a) 102°
    • (b) 124°
    • (c) 132°
    • (d) 112°
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. The angle turned by minutes hand in 25 minutes in a clock is:

    • (a) Figure for question 7, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 7, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 7, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 7, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 8. A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 72. What is the average score of the class?

    • (a) 67
    • (b) 68
    • (c) 66
    • (d) 69
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  9. 9. A sum of ₹10,000 is taken as a loan by Rajesh at a rate of 15% p.a. simple interest for 2 years. But Rajesh could not repay it at the agreed time and asked for an extension of two more years. So, the lender included the interest amount for the period as principal for the next two years at the same rate of interest. The total amount paid by Rajesh at the end of 4 years is:

    • (a) ₹16,900
    • (b) ₹17,650
    • (c) ₹15,630
    • (d) ₹18,590
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 10. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 12 cm, formed by an arc of length 7 cm is:

    • (a) 42 cm2
    • (b) 84 cm2
    • (c) 21 cm2
    • (d) 28 cm2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 11. Kalyan spends 80% of his income. His income increases by 15% and his expenditure also increases by 5%. The percentage of increase in his savings is:

    • (a) 20%
    • (b) 50%
    • (c) 55%
    • (d) 40%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 12. A boatman rows to a place 30 km distant and back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 10 km with the stream at the same time as 4 km against the stream. Find the speed (in km/h) of the stream.

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 13. Figure for question 13

    • (a) 3
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 1
    • (d) 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 14. Figure for question 14

    • (a) 230
    • (b) 250
    • (c) 260
    • (d) 240
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. 2 biscuits and 1 chocolate cost ₹69. 2 chocolates and 3 cups of coffee cost ₹127. 3 biscuits, 4 chocolates and 2 cups of coffee cost ₹229. Find the total cost (in ₹) of 5 biscuits, 5 chocolates and 5 cups of coffee.

    • (a) 355
    • (b) 375
    • (c) 304
    • (d) 345
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 17. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes, respectively. If both pipes are opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is:

    • (a) 10 minutes
    • (b) 40.5 minutes
    • (c) 20 minutes
    • (d) 81 minutes
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 18. A dishonest fruit-seller sells fruits at 20% profit but he uses 950 gm weight in place of 1 kg. What is the profit per cent?

    • (a) Figure for question 18, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 18, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 18, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 18, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 19. Figure for question 19

    • (a) −4gh
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 0
    • (d) 4gh
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 21. Find the mean proportional of 12.96 and 0.16.

    • (a) 1.44
    • (b) 1.69
    • (c) 1.96
    • (d) 1.21
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 22. Simplify the following. 16 ÷ 2− 7 × 15 ÷ 3 + 5 × 5 + 4 × 3 − 10

    • (a) 1
    • (b) -1
    • (c) 0
    • (d) 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 23. Find the remainder: (1713 − 21) ÷ 18

    • (a) 14
    • (b) 21
    • (c) 15
    • (d) 17
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 24. A manufacturer announces a trade discount of 30% on his products for his dealers. One of the dealers purchased 6 smart phones manufactured by the company at the rate of Rs.25,000 each. What is the amount of trade discount?

    • (a) Rs.55,000
    • (b) Rs.45,000
    • (c) Rs.50,000
    • (d) Rs.1,05,000
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 25. Figure for question 25

    • (a) 20,00,000
    • (b) 16,00,000
    • (c) 30,00,000
    • (d) 40,00,000
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Select the most appropriate option that can rectify the incorrectly spelt word in the following sentence. The government has ordered for the maintainance of the roads.

    • (a) maintainiance
    • (b) maintennance
    • (c) maintainence
    • (d) maintenance
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. Give one word substitution for : A person who is unsure about God’s existence

    • (a) Agnostic
    • (b) Atheist
    • (c) Ignorant
    • (d) Theist
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. If someone babbles, it means that they talk in a confused or excited way.

    • (a) Rants
    • (b) Talkative
    • (c) Quiet
    • (d) Gossips
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 4. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined part in the following sentence. Everyone called the reporter a daredevil after he came back safely from the war zone.

    • (a) a fearless person
    • (b) a hypocrite
    • (c) a common man
    • (d) an insignificant person
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 5. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word. Illiterate

    • (a) A person who cannot read and write
    • (b) A person who cannot speak
    • (c) One who is well-educated
    • (d) Highly rated thing
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 6. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Radhika stood by Monica’s side through thick and thin.

    • (a) Under easy situations wherein she could ensure Monica’s safety and security
    • (b) In all the happy moments, personally spending most of her time
    • (c) In the moments when Monica couldn’t complete some simple tasks
    • (d) Under all conditions, no matter how challenging or difficult
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. In the following sentence, four words are underlined out of which one word is misspelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word. I felt absolutely (A) fit at the summit. My mind was absolutely clear.(B) I didn’t feel tired, I felt exhelarated. (C)It was a very clear sensation.(D)

    • (a) C
    • (b) A
    • (c) B
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 8. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Martha made pancakes yesterday.

    • (a) Pancakes had been made by Martha yesterday.
    • (b) Pancakes were made by Martha yesterday.
    • (c) Pancakes were being made by Martha yesterday.
    • (d) Pancakes was made by Martha yesterday.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  9. 9. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in the brackets to fill in the blank. Akash went to ______ his school uniform. [sell]

    • (a) make
    • (b) rent
    • (c) loan
    • (d) buy
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence. Carnatic music is usually performed by a small troupe of actors, consisting of a principal performer, a melodic accompaniment, and a rhythm accompaniment.

    • (a) ensemble of musicians
    • (b) panel of judges
    • (c) band of singers
    • (d) board of directors
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 11. Choose the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence. The war was followed by a long period of prosperity.

    • (a) Affluence
    • (b) Security
    • (c) Secure
    • (d) Failure
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence. His approach was filled with such perseverance that it was difficult to overlook his merit.

    • (a) Reluctance
    • (b) Ignorance
    • (c) Doggedness
    • (d) Monotonous
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence and forms a meaningful sentence. In November, Lakshman fell (P) / with fever (Q) / seriously ill (R) and pneumonia (S).

    • (a) P, Q, R, S
    • (b) P, R, Q, S
    • (c) R, Q, S, P
    • (d) P, Q, S, R
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 14. The following sentence has been divided into five segments. The first segment has no error. Select the option that has the segment with the grammatical error. Due to the pandemic, / the prices of / medicines increased / every day since / last December.

    • (a) every day since
    • (b) last December.
    • (c) medicines increased
    • (d) the prices of
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  15. 15. In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. O: also benefit from knowing P: there are several reasons Q: why even parents would R: more about how and why S: children do the things that they do

    • (a) RQOPS
    • (b) OPQSR
    • (c) PQORS
    • (d) PQROS
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 16. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Affirmative

    • (a) Accession
    • (b) Sanction
    • (c) Negative
    • (d) Acquiescence
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 17. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. One who speaks less in a forum.

    • (a) Eccentric
    • (b) Loquacious
    • (c) Gabby
    • (d) Reticent
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 18. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase. An important person who represents his/her country in a foreign country

    • (a) Ambassador
    • (b) Amateur
    • (c) Anonymous
    • (d) Altruist
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 19. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. I will be gifted a fancy doll by them the next day.

    • (a) They will gift me a fancy doll tomorrow.
    • (b) They gift me a fancy doll the previous day.
    • (c) They gifted me a fancy doll yesterday.
    • (d) They are gifting me a fancy doll the next day.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 20. Parts of the given sentence have been underlined. Identify the part that has an error. Select 'No error' if there is no error. Although the team had trained diligently for months, they had still overwhelmed by the opponent's unexpected tactics.

    • (a) for months
    • (b) trained diligently
    • (c) had still overwhelmed
    • (d) No error
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. (1) _________ a letter came to inform them that Raka’s mother Tara had another breakdown and was in a nursing home in Geneva and that Raka’s grandmother Asha, (2) _________ seen another grandchild safely into the world, was flying to Switzerland to be with her, Nanda Kaul (3) _________ her lips, (4) _________ the blue sheets of paper with that distasteful sprawl (5) _________ them, and hid them in her desk.

  22. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

    • (a) Sooner
    • (b) When
    • (c) For
    • (d) Unless
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

    • (a) have
    • (b) has
    • (c) having
    • (d) had
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  24. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

    • (a) stuck
    • (b) dusted
    • (c) pursed
    • (d) dirt
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  25. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

    • (a) tucked away
    • (b) cleared up
    • (c) folded up
    • (d) hid away
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  26. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

    • (a) by
    • (b) in
    • (c) across
    • (d) at
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(a)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(a)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(b)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(a)
Q 21
(c)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(a)
Q 24
(a)
Q 25
(d)

General Awareness

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(a)
Q 5
(c)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(b)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(a)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(a)
Q 25
(a)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(c)
Q 2
(b)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(b)
Q 9
(a)
Q 10
(a)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(a)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(a)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(c)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(a)
Q 24
(b)
Q 25
(a)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(c)
Q 4
(a)
Q 5
(a)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(b)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(a)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(b)
Q 14
(c)
Q 15
(c)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(c)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(c)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(c)