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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 12 September, Shift 1 · exambharo.com/ssc-cgl/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2024-tier-1-12-sep-shift-1/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 12 September, Shift 1

12 September 2024 · 9:00 AM–10:00 AM97 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

Left out of the original paper: 3 (any question that needs a figure, symbol or formatting we cannot show, or whose text or answer did not come through cleanly from the official document).

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 12 September 2024, 9:00 AM–10:00 AM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word BINDER are arranged in English alphabetical order?

    • (a) One
    • (b) Three
    • (c) None
    • (d) Two
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the incorrect lettercluster. YCG IMQ SVZ CGK MQU

    • (a) CGK
    • (b) MQU
    • (c) SVZ
    • (d) IMQ
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

    • (a) 540 – 188 – 128
    • (b) 81– 101– 92
    • (c) 90 – 22– 12
    • (d) 72 – 284 – 266
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 342 × 18 + 79 − 45 ÷ 3 = ?

    • (a) 65
    • (b) 75
    • (c) 55
    • (d) 85
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 18 – 36 – 72 – 107; 15 – 30 – 60– 95

    • (a) 30 – 60 – 90 – 115
    • (b) 25 – 50 – 100 – 125
    • (c) 22 – 44 – 88 – 123
    • (d) 11 – 22 – 66 – 101
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 6. Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? IMHP, MPJQ, QSLR, UVNS, ?

    • (a) XYPT
    • (b) YYPT
    • (c) YXPT
    • (d) YYOT
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. Figure for question 7

    • (a) Figure for question 7, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 7, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 7, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 7, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 8. In a certain code language, ‘FACED’ is written as ‘GZDDE’ and ‘VACAY’ is written as ‘WZDZZ’. How will ‘LABOR’ be written in that language?

    • (a) MBCPS
    • (b) MZCNS
    • (c) MBDPS
    • (d) MADMS
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  9. 9. How many triangles are there in the given figure?Figure for question 9

    • (a) 16
    • (b) 21
    • (c) 20
    • (d) 18
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 10. In a certain code language, 'FIVE' is written as '12184410' and FOUR is written as '12304236'. How will 'THREE' be written in that language?

    • (a) 4016361310
    • (b) 4016361010
    • (c) 4016361110
    • (d) 4016361212
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All pages are diaries. Some diaries are books. All books are notebooks. Conclusions: I. No page is a notebook. II. All pages are notebooks. III. All diaries being notebooks is a possibility.

    • (a) Both conclusion I and II follow
    • (b) Only conclusions I and III follow
    • (c) Only conclusion II follows
    • (d) Only conclusion III follows
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. Figure for question 12

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 13. Six words Eat, Cry, Play, Sleep, Run and Bath are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find the word on the face opposite to Eat.Figure for question 13

    • (a) Cry
    • (b) Run
    • (c) Sleep
    • (d) Play
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 14. Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Virus : Parasite

    • (a) Amaltas : Tree
    • (b) Fungus : Jasmine
    • (c) Algae : Flower
    • (d) Fenugreek : Micro organism
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. Select the number from the given options to complete the series. 25, 30, 40, 55, 75, ___

    • (a) 80
    • (b) 100
    • (c) 105
    • (d) 85
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 16. ‘WISK’ is related to ‘DRHP’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘LENT’ is related to ‘OVMG’. To which of the following is ‘BANG’ related, following the same logic?

    • (a) ZYNS
    • (b) YZMT
    • (c) ZYLU
    • (d) YZNU
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 17. Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.Figure for question 17

    • (a) Figure for question 17, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 17, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 17, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 17, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 18. Two different positions of the same dice with faces T, O, B, L, Y and V are shown below. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the one having L.Figure for question 18

    • (a) O
    • (b) Y
    • (c) V
    • (d) B
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 19. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 247 ÷ 13 + 16 × 3 − 148 = 119

    • (a) − and +
    • (b) ÷ and ×
    • (c) − and ×
    • (d) + and ×
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 20. The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word ‘ENTOMB’ are arranged in English alphabetical order?

    • (a) One
    • (b) Two
    • (c) None
    • (d) Three
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 21. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.Figure for question 21

    • (a) Figure for question 21, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 21, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 21, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 21, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 22. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. (213, 157), (185, 129) (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

    • (a) (192, 152)
    • (b) (164, 108)
    • (c) (171, 123)
    • (d) (189, 141)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’; ‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’; ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is 4 related to 2 if ‘4 + 3 ÷ 2 ÷ 1 − 5’?

    • (a) Mother’s father
    • (b) Father’s father
    • (c) Mother’s mother
    • (d) Father’s mother
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

    • (a) FDZ
    • (b) JHD
    • (c) AYU
    • (d) KJE
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 25. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.Figure for question 25

    • (a) Figure for question 25, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 25, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 25, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 25, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

General Awareness

  1. 1. The organisms that do not have a defined nucleus or organelles are classified in to _______ Kingdom.

    • (a) Fungi
    • (b) Monera
    • (c) Protista
    • (d) Plantae
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. Kathakali, one of the classical dances of India, is predominantly performed in which of the following states of India?

    • (a) Uttar Pradesh
    • (b) Assam
    • (c) Kerala
    • (d) Manipur
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. In 2002, Zakir Hussain became the youngest percussionist to be honoured with which award?

    • (a) Padma Bhushan
    • (b) National Heritage Fellowship
    • (c) Grammy Award
    • (d) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Microbes like Rhizobium, Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are used for:

    • (a) carbon cycling
    • (b) nitrogen cycling
    • (c) water cycling
    • (d) sulphur cycling
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. Which is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, a basic savings and deposits accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner?

    • (a) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
    • (b) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
    • (c) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
    • (d) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. What is net investment?

    • (a) Gross investment + depreciation
    • (b) Gross investment - depreciation
    • (c) Gross capital investment - indirect taxes
    • (d) Sum of all the investments in a country
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. Figure for question 7

    • (a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    • (b) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
    • (c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
    • (d) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. In which state/UT is the Hemis festival celebrated?

    • (a) Sikkim
    • (b) Punjab
    • (c) Lakshadweep
    • (d) Ladakh
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. A javelin thrown by an athlete is in ________ motion.

    • (a) rectilinear
    • (b) periodic
    • (c) curvilinear
    • (d) oscillatory
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. Who among the following is the world renowned exponent of the bamboo flute?

    • (a) MS Subbulakshmi
    • (b) Hariprasad Chaurasia
    • (c) Ravi Shankar
    • (d) Bismillah Khan
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. The magnificent Kailasa temple at Ellora was built during the reign of which Rashtrakuta king?

    • (a) Indra III
    • (b) Govinda III
    • (c) Krishna I
    • (d) Amoghavarsha
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 12. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that ‘there shall be a Vice President of India’?

    • (a) Article 61
    • (b) Article 63
    • (c) Article 65
    • (d) Article 62
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 13. Purvanchal Himalayas does NOT comprise of:

    • (a) Pir Panjal range
    • (b) Mizo hills
    • (c) Manipur hills
    • (d) Naga hills
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 14. Which of the following plays was NOT written by Harshavardhana?

    • (a) Vikramorvasiyam
    • (b) Nagananda
    • (c) Ratnavali
    • (d) Priyadarshika
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. In August 2022, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the ________ scheme, with an aim to provide comprehensive rehabilitation services to people engaged in begging in 75 municipalities.

    • (a) SMILE-75
    • (b) BEAM-75
    • (c) TWINKLE-75
    • (d) RISE-75
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 16. A student, on his school assignment, is taking a session on how to make compost at home for using it at a park. Which fundamental duty is he performing?

    • (a) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
    • (b) To protect and improve the natural environment
    • (c) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
    • (d) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 17. India won the ICC Men Cricket World Cup for the first time in which of the following years?

    • (a) 1992
    • (b) 1987
    • (c) 1996
    • (d) 1983
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 18. Calculate the oxidation number of ‘S’ in H2S2O7 .

    • (a) 3
    • (b) 7
    • (c) 2
    • (d) 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 19. Which of the following is NOT an amendment made to the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) Amendment Act, 2021?

    • (a) The government can call any airport a major airport just by notification.
    • (b) A major airport is one which has an annual traffic of minimum 35 lakh passengers.
    • (c) The government will club together profit-making and loss-making airports.
    • (d) The government can offer airports as a package in PPP mode to the prospective bidders.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. In which year did India make its Olympic debut in hockey?

    • (a) 1936
    • (b) 1928
    • (c) 1924
    • (d) 1932
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 21. Who among the following was selected as the Sherpa for India’s G20 hosted in 2022-23?

    • (a) Amitabh Kant
    • (b) Piyush Goyal
    • (c) Ashwini Vaishnav
    • (d) Shaktikanta Das
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 22. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, on which of the following dates did the soldiers at Meerut start their journey to Delhi?

    • (a) 29 March
    • (b) 10 May
    • (c) 2 June
    • (d) 19 April
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. The green revolution technology resulted in an increase in production of cereal production from 72.4 million tons in 1965-66 to ________ million tons in 1978-79.

    • (a) 150.8
    • (b) 165.9
    • (c) 141.2
    • (d) 131.9
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. Identify the oldest iron and steel company of India from the following options.

    • (a) Mysore Iron & Steel Works
    • (b) Tata Iron & Steel Company(TISCO)
    • (c) Visvesvaraiya Iron & Steel Works
    • (d) Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCO)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 25. Which of the following is the largest artificial lake of Asia?

    • (a) Chilika Lake
    • (b) Dal Lake
    • (c) Bhopal Lake
    • (d) Naini Lake
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. Which digits should come in place * and $,respectively, if the number 72864*$ is divisible by both 8 and 5?

    • (a) 4 and 5
    • (b) 2 and 0
    • (c) 4 and 0
    • (d) 2 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 2. A shopkeeper marked an article at ₹5,000. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 20%,15% and 10%. The selling price of the article is:

    • (a) ₹3,060
    • (b) ₹2,750
    • (c) ₹3,000
    • (d) ₹2,800
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. The measures of the three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 17 : 13 : 15. Find the positive difference between the greatest and the smallest of these three angles.

    • (a) 24°
    • (b) 20°
    • (c) 16°
    • (d) 12°
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 4. A certain sum of money becomes seven times itself when invested at a certain rate of simple interest, in 14 years. How much time (in years, rounded off to 2 decimal places) will it take to become 18 times itself at the same rate?

    • (a) 35.5
    • (b) 27.33
    • (c) 42.78
    • (d) 39.67
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. In a triangle PQR, S is a point on the side QR such that PS⊥QR, then which of the following options is true?

    • (a) PS2 + QS2 = PQ2 + PR2
    • (b) PS2 + PR2 = PQ2 + QR2
    • (c) PQ2 + PR2 = QS2 + SR2
    • (d) PR2 + QS2 = PQ2 + SR2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. M and N walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. M and N walk at a speed of 5 rounds per hour and 2 rounds per hour, respectively. How many times will they cross each other before 6.30 a.m. on the same day?

    • (a) 3
    • (b) 7
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 7. Two pipes, A and B, can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes, respectively. The pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes. All the three pipes are opened at a time in the beginning. However, pipe C is closed 2 minutes before the tank is filled. In what time, will the tank be full (in minutes)?

    • (a) 10
    • (b) 8
    • (c) 12
    • (d) 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. Figure for question 8

    • (a) 1074
    • (b) 698
    • (c) 1048
    • (d) 1047
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. The incomes of P, Q and R are in the ratio 10 : 12 : 9 and their expenditures are in the ratio 12 : 15 : 8. If Q saves 25% of his income, then what is the ratio of the savings of P, Q and R?

    • (a) 21 : 14 : 15
    • (b) 15 : 14 : 21
    • (c) 21 : 15 : 14
    • (d) 14 : 15 : 21
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Figure for question 10

    • (a) Figure for question 10, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 10, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 10, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 10, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 11. The average of 12 numbers is 48. The average of the first 5 numbers is 45 and the average of next 4 numbers is 52. If the 10th number is 10 less than the 11th number and is 5 more than the 12th number, then the average of the 11th and 12th numbers is:

    • (a) 48.5
    • (b) 47.5
    • (c) 46.5
    • (d) 50.5
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 14. The height of a cylinder is 20 cm. The lateral surface area is 1760 cm2. Its volume is:

    • (a) Figure for question 14, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 14, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 14, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 14, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 15. Raj divides ₹1,200 in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3 among three of his friends. The amount equal to the sum of three times the largest share and two times the smallest share is:

    • (a) ₹1,800
    • (b) ₹2,400
    • (c) ₹2,000
    • (d) ₹2,200
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 16. Figure for question 16

    • (a) Figure for question 16, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 16, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 16, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 16, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 17. In triangles ABC and DEF, AB = FD and ∠A = ∠D. The two triangles are congruent by SAS criterion if:

    • (a) AC = DE
    • (b) AC = EF
    • (c) BC = DE
    • (d) BC = EF
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 18. Figure for question 18

    • (a) 65%
    • (b) 90%
    • (c) 80%
    • (d) 75%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 19. If 28.9 : x :: x : 36.1, and x > 0, then find the value of x.

    • (a) 38.3
    • (b) 30.4
    • (c) 35
    • (d) 32.3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 20. A payment of ₹120 is made with ₹10, ₹5 and ₹2 coins. A total of 25 coins are used. Which of the following is the number of ₹10 coins used in the payment?

    • (a) 10
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 8
    • (d) 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 21. Figure for question 211

    • (a) 45°
    • (b) 30°
    • (c) 75°
    • (d) 90°
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 22. Find the value of the following expression.Figure for question 22

    • (a) Figure for question 22, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 22, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 22, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 22, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 23. Simplify 15.5 − [3 − {7 − (5 − (14.5 − 13.5))}].

    • (a) 15.5
    • (b) 13.5
    • (c) 14.5
    • (d) 12.5
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 24. Figure for question 24

    • (a) Figure for question 24, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 24, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 24, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 24, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Identity the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Secure

    • (a) Trundle
    • (b) Save
    • (c) Succeed
    • (d) Attack
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Acquiesce

    • (a) Thwart
    • (b) Cease
    • (c) Desist
    • (d) Concur
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words. In Indian mythology, most of the Asuras wish to be never able to die.

    • (a) Immortal
    • (b) Invisible
    • (c) Impervious
    • (d) Invincible
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. The genuine beliefs, though not unconsciously acquired by most children; and even if they depart from these beliefs in later life B. Something of them remains deeply implanted, ready to emerge in a time of stress of crisis C. The importance of education in forming character and opinion is very great and well recognised by all D. Education is, as a rule, the strongest force on the side of what exists and again fundamental change

    • (a) DABC
    • (b) CBAD
    • (c) DCAB
    • (d) CABD
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence. In my new office, all employees were different, so I felt like a fish out of water.

    • (a) Disappointed
    • (b) Frustrated
    • (c) Homeless
    • (d) Uncomfortable
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. Select the most appropriate synonym of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank. During Covid times, many organisations made ________(sentimental) appeals to raise funds for migrant workers.

    • (a) practical
    • (b) mawkish
    • (c) cynical
    • (d) sincere
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If I was the queen, I would give a handsome sum towards education.

    • (a) will be the queen
    • (b) would be the queen
    • (c) have been the queen
    • (d) were the queen
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 8. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

    • (a) Embarrass
    • (b) Accommodate
    • (c) Exhilerate
    • (d) Occurrence
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 9. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

    • (a) Succeed
    • (b) Preceed
    • (c) Proceed
    • (d) Exceed
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 10. Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice. Sonam does not like bananas.

    • (a) Bananas had not been liked by Sonam.
    • (b) Bananas have not been liked by Sonam.
    • (c) Bananas are not liked by Sonam.
    • (d) Banana is not liked by Sonam.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 11. Select the most appropriate synonym for the underlined word in the given sentence. His ambition in life is to become a happy and satisfied man.

    • (a) Eagerness
    • (b) Amend
    • (c) Satisfaction
    • (d) Apathy
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 12. Read the sentence carefully and select the most suitable idiom to fill in the blank. The renowned publisher decided to withdraw a book from the market. No one was interested in the book as the arguments presented were ____________.

    • (a) under the rose
    • (b) high and mighty
    • (c) beside the mark
    • (d) out of the woods
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error. Mrs. Sreelakshmi’s / musical intelligence / is superior than / Mrs. Suma’s.

    • (a) Mrs. Sreelakshmi’s
    • (b) musical intelligence
    • (c) Mrs. Suma’s.
    • (d) is superior than
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence. He is an atheist, although he respects everyone’s belief.

    • (a) One who believes in nature
    • (b) One who does not believe in God
    • (c) One who believes in God
    • (d) One who is extremist
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Receive

    • (a) Reward
    • (b) Admit
    • (c) Exile
    • (d) Fund
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 16. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Gourav was no good than a foolish person.

    • (a) no best
    • (b) not good
    • (c) no better
    • (d) not best
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 17. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice Someone has taken my secret diary.

    • (a) My secret diary has to be taken by someone.
    • (b) My secret diary had been taken by someone.
    • (c) My secret diary will have been taken by someone.
    • (d) My secret diary has been taken by someone.
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 18. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. That which cannot be conquered

    • (a) Ineffable
    • (b) Indelible
    • (c) Invisible
    • (d) Invincible
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 19. Select the option that corrects the error in the given sentence. He ran quick to catch the bus.

    • (a) insipid
    • (b) rapid
    • (c) quiet
    • (d) quickly
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. 20. Select the option that can be used as a one-word-substitute for the given group of words. A false idea or belief

    • (a) Entropy
    • (b) Fallacy
    • (c) Reticence
    • (d) Atrophy
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

    The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity. The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

  22. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

    • (a) prone
    • (b) delectable
    • (c) quaint
    • (d) habitual
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

    • (a) hardly
    • (b) gradually
    • (c) recently
    • (d) initially
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

    • (a) infection
    • (b) condition
    • (c) supervision
    • (d) dimension
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

    • (a) enough
    • (b) tough
    • (c) through
    • (d) though
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  26. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

    • (a) ascend
    • (b) blend
    • (c) legend
    • (d) amend
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(c)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(b)
Q 9
(b)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(b)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(b)
Q 16
(b)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(c)
Q 21
(c)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(b)

General Awareness

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(a)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(b)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(b)
Q 25
(c)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(c)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(c)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(d)
Q 11
(a)
Q 14
(c)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(d)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(d)
Q 20
(c)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(a)
Q 24
(b)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(c)
Q 9
(b)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(a)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(c)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(d)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(c)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(a)
Q 25
(b)