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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 10 September 2024, Shift 2 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2024-tier-1-10-sep-shift-2/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 10 September 2024, Shift 2

10 September 2024 · 12:30 PM–1:30 PM95 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

5 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 10 September 2024, 12:30 PM–1:30 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’. A − B means ‘A is the father of B’. A × B means ‘A is the mother of B’. A ÷ B means ‘A is the wife of B’. Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P × Q + R ÷ S − T’?

    • (a) Sister
    • (b) Wife
    • (c) Mother
    • (d) Mother’s mother
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 543, 518, 495, 474, 455, ?

    • (a) 444
    • (b) 442
    • (c) 440
    • (d) 438
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. 104 is related to 13 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 136 is related to 17. To which of the following is 232 related, following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

    • (a) 29
    • (b) 31
    • (c) 33
    • (d) 27
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some bags are purses. All purses are wallets. All wallets are sacks. Conclusions: (I) All purses are sacks. (II) Some wallets are bags.

    • (a) Both conclusions (I) and (II) are follow
    • (b) Only conclusion (II) is follow
    • (c) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is follow
    • (d) Only conclusion (I) is follow
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 5. Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: No bench is chair. All sofas are benches. All tables are sofas. Conclusions: I. No table is a chair. II. Some sofas are chairs. III. All tables are benches.

    • (a) Only conclusion I follows
    • (b) Only conclusions I and II follow
    • (c) Only conclusion II follows
    • (d) Only conclusions I and III follow
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. In a certain code language, ‘COWS’ is coded as ‘7935’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘2568’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that language?

    • (a) 5
    • (b) 8
    • (c) 2
    • (d) 9
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 7. Three of the following number-pairs are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which number-pair does not belong to that group? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

    • (a) 21 – 420
    • (b) 22 – 462
    • (c) 18 – 306
    • (d) 15 – 240
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 8. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group? The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster

    • (a) DHK
    • (b) EIM
    • (c) BFJ
    • (d) IMQ
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 9. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. BACK : CCBI : : TEST : UGRR : : WORK : ?

    • (a) YQQJ
    • (b) XQSI
    • (c) YQPI
    • (d) XQQI
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers in the given pairs. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 12 : 25 11 : 23

    • (a) 15 : 29
    • (b) 25 : 49
    • (c) 21 : 43
    • (d) 18 : 35
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 11. Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.Figure for question 11

    • (a) Figure for question 11, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 11, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 11, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 11, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 12. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.Figure for question 12

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (25, 300, 6) (19, 342, 9)

    • (a) (17, 476, 7)
    • (b) (24, 600, 5)
    • (c) (18, 288, 8)
    • (d) (14, 364, 7)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.Figure for question 14

    • (a) Figure for question 14, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 14, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 14, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 14, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. Six letters A, T, M, P, S and R are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure below. Find the letter on the face opposite to the one having R.Figure for question 15

    • (a) M
    • (b) T
    • (c) A
    • (d) S
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 16. In a certain code language, ‘TIZZ’ is written as ‘VKBB’ and ‘QOPH’ is written as ‘SQRJ’. How will ‘CKAU’ be written in that language?

    • (a) EMCW
    • (b) DNBV
    • (c) ENCV
    • (d) DMBW
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 17. How many triangles are there in the given figure?Figure for question 17

    • (a) 17
    • (b) 16
    • (c) 14
    • (d) 15
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 18. Each vowel in the word ‘SIMILAR’ is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the preceding letter in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the letter which is the second from the left end and the third from the left end in the group of letters thus formed?

    • (a) Three
    • (b) Two
    • (c) One
    • (d) Four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 19. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? ICT, FES, CGR, ZIQ, ?

    • (a) XLO
    • (b) WKP
    • (c) XKP
    • (d) WJP
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?Figure for question 20

    • (a) Figure for question 20, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 20, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 20, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 20, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 21. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. DOY:PAK ::BQM:NCY :: ILU:?

    • (a) TYG
    • (b) UYG
    • (c) TXG
    • (d) UXG
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  22. 22. Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 116 - 92 ÷ 4 + 25 × 2 - 20 = 150

    • (a) 116 and 92
    • (b) 25 and 20
    • (c) 2 and 4
    • (d) 20 and 92
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 23. Six letters U, V, W, X, Y and Z are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure below. Find the letter on the face opposite to Z.Figure for question 23

    • (a) W
    • (b) Y
    • (c) U
    • (d) X
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 24. Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 72 – 6 + (18 ÷ 4) + 17 – (22 × 2) = 44

    • (a) 2 and 4
    • (b) 22 and 18
    • (c) 6 and 22
    • (d) 6 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 25. Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given letter series. D F _ I J O D _ H I J O _ F H I J O D F _ I J O D _

    • (a) HFFDH
    • (b) FHDHF
    • (c) HFHDF
    • (d) HFDHF
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

General Awareness

  1. 1. As of March 2023, how many High Courts are there in India?

    • (a) 25
    • (b) 35
    • (c) 30
    • (d) 20
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Harela is a festival of greenery, peace, prosperity, and environmental conservation, primarily celebrated in which of the following states?

    • (a) Madhya Pradesh
    • (b) Haryana
    • (c) Assam
    • (d) Uttarakhand
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. Which species is known as black lipped pearl oyster found in the Indo-Pacific, within tropical coral reefs?

    • (a) Aplysia dactylomela
    • (b) Dentalium neohexagonum
    • (c) Chaetopleura apiculata
    • (d) Pinctada margaritifera
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. The CSO adopted the concept of Gross Value Added in ______.

    • (a) January 2012
    • (b) January 2015
    • (c) January 2017
    • (d) January 2013
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 6. How many medals did India win in International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup 2022, which was held in Cairo, Egypt?

    • (a) 9
    • (b) 6
    • (c) 7
    • (d) 8
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 7. Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan is a maestro in ________.

    • (a) Tabla
    • (b) Mridangam
    • (c) Sitar
    • (d) Flute
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 8. Which physical feature of India prevents the cold winds from central Asia from entering the Indian subcontinents?

    • (a) Indian plains
    • (b) Indian desert
    • (c) Coastal area
    • (d) Himalayas
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 9. Which state initiated the implementation of the Mid-day Meal scheme in elementary schools?

    • (a) Tamil Nadu
    • (b) Madhya Pradesh
    • (c) Uttar Pradesh
    • (d) Karnataka
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 10. In the 7th Century AD, a new religion called Islam was born in _________.

    • (a) Malaysia
    • (b) South Africa
    • (c) Arabia
    • (d) Indonesia
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 12. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions about the organisation of ‘Village Panchayats’?

    • (a) Article 31
    • (b) Article 38
    • (c) Article 36
    • (d) Article 40
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 13. Sitar maestro, Pandit Ravi Shankar was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in 1999?

    • (a) Padma Shri
    • (b) Padma Bhushan
    • (c) Bharat Ratna
    • (d) Padma Vibhushan
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 14. ‘Au’ is the symbol for which of the following elements?

    • (a) Gold
    • (b) Aluminium
    • (c) Silver
    • (d) Argon
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 15. Which of the following options is associated with the class of cold-blooded animals?

    • (a) Chameleon
    • (b) Pavo
    • (c) Macropus
    • (d) Psittacula
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 16. Which Article of the Constitution of India grants power to the President to appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?

    • (a) Article 124(2)
    • (b) Article 123(1)
    • (c) Article 127(3)
    • (d) Article 128(4)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 17. In which year was the International Olympic Committee formed?

    • (a) 1896
    • (b) 1892
    • (c) 1898
    • (d) 1894
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 18. To which group do the alkaline earth metals such as radium, barium and strontium belong?

    • (a) Group 5A
    • (b) Group 2A
    • (c) Group 1A
    • (d) Group 3A
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 19. In which of the following games is one player known as the Wicketkeeper?

    • (a) Football
    • (b) Basketball
    • (c) Cricket
    • (d) Hockey
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 20. Which of the following is the transboundary river between India and Pakistan?

    • (a) Indus
    • (b) Ravi
    • (c) Beas
    • (d) Jhelum
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 21. According to the Agricultural and Processed food products Export Development Authority (APEDA) 2020-2021, which state of India has the first rank in grapes production?

    • (a) Maharashtra
    • (b) Karnataka
    • (c) Bihar
    • (d) Uttar Pradesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 22. Gautamiputra Satakarni titled Rajaraja and Maharaja is related to which of the following dynasties?

    • (a) Shunga
    • (b) Pandya
    • (c) Satavahana
    • (d) Shaka
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 23. Which of the following has the highest salinity?

    • (a) Great salt lake
    • (b) Lake Van
    • (c) Red sea
    • (d) Dead sea
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 24. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?

    • (a) 32A
    • (b) 45A
    • (c) 62B
    • (d) 51A
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  23. 25. Mohiniyattam is associated with which of the following traditional dance styles?

    • (a) Samapadam
    • (b) Tribhanga
    • (c) Chowk
    • (d) Lasya style
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. Find the values of x, y and z, so as to satisfy the equations given below: x + y + z = 12; x + y – z = 6; x – y + z = 4

    • (a) x = 5, y = 4, z = – 3
    • (b) x = 5, y = – 4, z = 3
    • (c) x = 5, y = 4, z = 3
    • (d) x = 5, y = – 4, z = – 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 2. A policeman noticed a thief at a distance of 500 metres. The policeman started running and the thief also started running at the same time. The thief is running at a speed of 15 km/h. It took 15 minutes for the policeman to catch the thief. Find the speed of the policeman (in km/h).

    • (a) 11
    • (b) 17
    • (c) 12
    • (d) 10
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 3. The given table shows the number of books on different subjects. Figure for question 3 What is the ratio of the number of books for subject B1 to the average number of books per subject?

    • (a) 3 : 5
    • (b) 2 : 5
    • (c) 10 : 11
    • (d) 4 : 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 4. If A:B = 6 : 8 and B:C = 5 : 12, then A:B:C is:

    • (a) 11:32:44
    • (b) 10:23:14
    • (c) 14:31:28
    • (d) 15:20:48
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 6. Figure for question 6

    • (a) 4
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 7. ΔEFG and ΔHIJ are similar. Also, ∠ E = ∠ H and ∠ F = ∠ I. If 3EF = HI and FG = 9 cm, then IJ is equal to ____.

    • (a) 9 cm
    • (b) 27 cm
    • (c) 3 cm
    • (d) 18 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 8. Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows. The bar-graph shows the sales of books (in thousands) from six branches (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6) of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001. Figure for question 8 The total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B3 for both the years (correct up to two decimal places)?

    • (a) 69.25%
    • (b) 73.17%
    • (c) 70.69%
    • (d) 82.26%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 9. Places A and B are 20 km apart on the highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If the cars travel in the same direction at different speeds, they meet in one hour. If they travelled towards each other, they met in 12 minutes. What are the speeds (in km/h) of two cars?

    • (a) 60, 40
    • (b) 52, 48
    • (c) 51, 49
    • (d) 55, 45
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 10. If 45° and 65° are the angles of a triangle, then find the exterior angle of the third angle (remaining angle).

    • (a) 110°
    • (b) 120°
    • (c) 70°
    • (d) 100°
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 11. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated about the sides of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so formed is:

    • (a) 20π cm3
    • (b) 16π cm3
    • (c) 25π cm3
    • (d) 28π cm3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 12. Pipe L can fill a pool in 30 hours and pipe M in 45 hours. If both the pipes are opened in an empty pool, how much time will they take to fill it?

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 13. Figure for question 13

    • (a) 47
    • (b) 51
    • (c) 45
    • (d) 49
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 14. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at a 10% profit and the rest at a 40% profit. He gains 20% on the whole. The quantity sold at 40% profit is:

    • (a) Figure for question 14, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 14, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 14, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 14, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 15. Figure for question 15

    • (a) 6
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 5
    • (d) 7
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 16. The concentrations of three acids, A, B, and C, are specified as 20%, 30%, and 40%, respectively. They are blended in a ratio of 3 : 5 : a, yielding a solution with a concentration of 30%. What is the value of 'a'?

    • (a) 3
    • (b) 1
    • (c) 2
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 17. Figure for question 17

    • (a) 0.37
    • (b) 0.28
    • (c) 0.48
    • (d) 0.42
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 18. Ravi's salary was increased by 50%. After some time, his new salary was also increased by 50%. Find his gain percentage of salary.

    • (a) 125%
    • (b) 100%
    • (c) 200%
    • (d) 150%
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 19. The given bar graph shows the production of bikes by a company (in thousands) over the years. Figure for question 19 In how many of the given years was the production of bikes more than the average production of bikes over the years?.

    • (a) 2 years
    • (b) 1 year
    • (c) 4 years
    • (d) 3 years
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 21. If (7777+77) is divided by 78, then the remainder will be:

    • (a) 76
    • (b) 77
    • (c) 78
    • (d) 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 22. Two successive discounts of 40% and 30% are equal to a single discount of:

    • (a) 70%
    • (b) 35%
    • (c) 58%
    • (d) 60%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 23. In a circle of radius 5√13 cm, a chord is at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the circle. Find the length (in cm) of the chord.

    • (a) 30
    • (b) 28
    • (c) 36
    • (d) 15
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 24. What annual instalment will discharge a debt of ₹26,160 due in 4 years at 6% simple interest p.a.?

    • (a) ₹4,500
    • (b) ₹5,500
    • (c) ₹6,000
    • (d) ₹5,800
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 25. Simplify ​21 − [6 + 7 − {3.22 − (1.1 × 0.2)}].

    • (a) 13
    • (b) 12
    • (c) 11
    • (d) 10
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. Their sporting achievements at the highest level are being utterly ignored.

    • (a) Extremely
    • (b) Correctly
    • (c) Minimally
    • (d) Totally
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 2. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Stationary

    • (a) Motile
    • (b) Portable
    • (c) Swindle
    • (d) Still
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence. Rare species of frogs were very quicker identified by Stella.

    • (a) to frogs were very quickly
    • (b) of frogs were very quickly
    • (c) in frogs were very quicker
    • (d) of frogs were very quicklier
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence to fill in the blank. Most of the flowers bloom in the spring season but they start to ________ during summer.

    • (a) flush
    • (b) wither
    • (c) flourish
    • (d) blossom
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence. O. delicious R. she Q. a P. baked S. chocolate cake

    • (a) RPQOS
    • (b) QOSRP
    • (c) OPQRS
    • (d) SRPQO
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 7. Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group of words. An often-imaginary place or state of utter perfection and happiness

    • (a) Inferno
    • (b) Dystopia
    • (c) Euphoria
    • (d) Utopia
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 8. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Risible

    • (a) Serious
    • (b) Curious
    • (c) Droll
    • (d) Giddy
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 9. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence. He was an irresponsible person to the matter of taking up responsibilities.

    • (a) at the matter of taking up
    • (b) in the matter of taking up
    • (c) by the matter of taking up
    • (d) along the matter of taking up
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  9. 10. Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank. Subir’s long absence is likely to have _____ for employees in the office.

    • (a) repercusions
    • (b) repercussions
    • (c) reperrcussions
    • (d) rapercussions
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 11. Select the correctly spelt word.

    • (a) Privelege
    • (b) Priviledge
    • (c) Privilege
    • (d) Privilej
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 12. Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in passive voice. The shareholders will elect him a director.

    • (a) He will be elected as director by the shareholders.
    • (b) The shareholders have elected him a director.
    • (c) The shareholders elected him a director.
    • (d) He will be elected a director.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 13. What does the idiom ‘Bite the bullet’ mean?

    • (a) Enjoy a delicious meal
    • (b) Face a difficult situation with courage
    • (c) Avoid confrontation
    • (d) Give someone a piece of advice
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 14. In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. O: its first constitution P: and soon got himself elected Q: the administration of the country R: general Ayub Khan took over S: after Pakistan framed

    • (a) SORQP
    • (b) SPORQ
    • (c) POSRQ
    • (d) ROPQS
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 15. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Pugnacious

    • (a) Ally
    • (b) Belligerent
    • (c) Sly
    • (d) Dogmatic
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 16. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. It is also called a nuclear family. B. It is good to be in a small family because there is better management of resources. C. A small family is one with parents and a maximum of two children. D. The advantages of a small family are numerous.

    • (a) CADB
    • (b) BACD
    • (c) CBDA
    • (d) ACBD
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 17. Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. No other place in this country is so better as Gulmarg, Kashmir.

    • (a) No other place
    • (b) in this country is
    • (c) so better as
    • (d) Gulmarg, Kashmir
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 18. Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice. The letter will be delivered by the postman tomorrow.

    • (a) The postman delivered the letter tomorrow
    • (b) The postman will have delivered the letter tomorrow.
    • (c) The postman will deliver the letter tomorrow.
    • (d) The postman will be delivering the letter tomorrow.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 19. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. Our family is planning / a trip to Europe next summer / where we should visit several famous / landmarks and enjoy local cuisine.

    • (a) where we should visit several famous
    • (b) Our family is planning
    • (c) landmarks and enjoy local cuisine
    • (d) a trip to Europe next summer
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 20. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence to fill in the blank. Most of the land near the town is barren, but the efforts of the farmers have turned it ________.

    • (a) sterile
    • (b) infertile
    • (c) fertile
    • (d) unfruitful
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  20. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

    Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly more significant and lasting. Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington, New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

  21. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1

    • (a) restrictions
    • (b) intemperance
    • (c) advantages
    • (d) handicap
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2

    • (a) brandings
    • (b) measures
    • (c) models
    • (d) sluggishness
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3

    • (a) marginalisation
    • (b) foundations
    • (c) disapproval
    • (d) consequences
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

    • (a) clearest
    • (b) vague
    • (c) indistinct
    • (d) nebulous
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  25. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

    • (a) disrupted
    • (b) regulated
    • (c) measured
    • (d) normalised
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(a)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(a)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(a)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(d)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(d)

General Awareness

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(b)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(a)
Q 10
(c)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(b)
Q 19
(c)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(d)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(c)
Q 2
(b)
Q 3
(c)
Q 4
(d)
Q 6
(a)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(b)
Q 9
(a)
Q 10
(a)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(a)
Q 14
(d)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(d)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(a)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(c)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(c)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(a)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(a)
Q 9
(b)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(a)
Q 13
(b)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(b)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(c)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(a)
Q 25
(a)