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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2023 Tier I — 25 July 2023, Shift 1 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2023-tier-1-25-jul-shift-1/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2023 Tier I — 25 July 2023, Shift 1

25 July 2023 · 9:00 AM–10:00 AM98 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

2 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 25 July 2023, 9:00 AM–10:00 AM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Figure for question 1

    • (a) Figure for question 1, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 1, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 1, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 1, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 784 ÷ 6 × 9 − 30 + 14 = 528

    • (a) 14 and 6, + and –
    • (b) 784 and 30, + and ×
    • (c) 784 and 6, × and –
    • (d) 9 and 6, ÷ and +
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. Figure for question 3

    • (a) Figure for question 3, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 3, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 3, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 3, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Graduates, Educated, Unemployed

    • (a) Figure for question 4, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 4, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 4, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 4, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 6. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter cluster. DISMAY : SIDYAM :: DRIVER : IRDREV :: SAFARI : ?

    • (a) SAFIAR
    • (b) IRAFAS
    • (c) FASIRA
    • (d) FSAIRA
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 7. Looking at the family picture, Rajan said, “She is my wife’s son’s father’s mother’s husband’s daughter.’ How is the girl in the photo related to Rajan?

    • (a) Sister
    • (b) Mother-in-law
    • (c) Wife’s Sister
    • (d) Daughter-in-law
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 8. Figure for question 8

    • (a) Figure for question 8, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 8, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 8, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 8, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 9. Three Statements are given followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All pens are newspapers. Some newspapers are novels. No novel is a book. Conclusions: I. Some books are pens. II. Some novels are pens. III. No book is a pen.

    • (a) Either conclusion I or III follows.
    • (b) Both conclusions II and III follow.
    • (c) Either conclusion II or III follows.
    • (d) Both conclusions I and II follow.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 10. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /Subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed) (9, 20, 31) (38, 49, 60)

    • (a) (63, 60, 65)
    • (b) (15, 20, 31)
    • (c) (25, 69, 45)
    • (d) (14, 24, 34)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 11. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.) (7, 150, 23) (11, 75, 4)

    • (a) (4, 108, 16)
    • (b) (8, 90, 11)
    • (c) (9, 80, 11)
    • (d) (15, 140, 13)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 12. In a certain code language, 'RAT' is coded as ‘39’ and 'MICE' is coded as ‘30’. How will 'ZEBRA' be coded in that language?

    • (a) 53
    • (b) 52
    • (c) 51
    • (d) 50
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 13. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

    • (a) ONL
    • (b) RQO
    • (c) HGE
    • (d) DCB
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 14. Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? BZVR, DXWQ, ?, HTYO, JRZN

    • (a) FXPV
    • (b) FXPN
    • (c) FVXP
    • (d) FVPX
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 15. Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series. Z Y R _ Z _ R R Z Y _ R _ Y R _

    • (a) R Y R Z R
    • (b) Z R Y Z R
    • (c) R Z R Y Z
    • (d) Z R R Y Z
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 16. Figure for question 16

    • (a) Figure for question 16, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 16, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 16, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 16, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 17. The second number in the given number-pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) is/are followed in all the number-pairs except one. Find that odd number-pair.

    • (a) 128 : 8
    • (b) 288 : 12
    • (c) 350 : 15
    • (d) 18 : 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 18. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it. First row: 16, 15, 35 Second row: 12, 18, 33 Third row: 8, 17, ? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the number into its constituent digits. For example, 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

    • (a) 31
    • (b) 27
    • (c) 25
    • (d) 30
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 19. Figure for question 19

    • (a) Figure for question 19, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 19, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 19, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 19, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 20. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number. 1029 : 7 :: 2187 : 9 :: 24 : ?

    • (a) 3
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 6
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 21. Each vowel in the word “FOREFOOT” is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. In the newly formed word, how many alphabets are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is 2nd from the left and 1st from the right?

    • (a) Three
    • (b) Two
    • (c) One
    • (d) Four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 22. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 27, 38, ?, 68, 87, 110

    • (a) 47
    • (b) 50
    • (c) 51
    • (d) 53
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 23. In a certain code language, ‘CAKE’ is written as ‘6874’, ‘EASY’ is written as ‘4882’. How will ‘MAKE’ be written in that language?

    • (a) 5875
    • (b) 5874
    • (c) 5884
    • (d) 5774
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 24. Figure for question 24

    • (a) Figure for question 24, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 24, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 24, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 24, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  24. 25. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 3 × 12 − 6 ÷ 2 + 12 = 16

    • (a) ÷ and +
    • (b) × and ÷
    • (c) − and ÷
    • (d) − and +
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

General Awareness

  1. 1. As per the Census data, What was the density of population in India in 2011?

    • (a) 822 persons/sq km
    • (b) 382 persons/sq km
    • (c) 328 persons/sq km
    • (d) 282 persons/sq km
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. Who among the following was the Maharana of Mewar and composed a book on music called ‘Sangeet Raj’?

    • (a) Maharana Sanga
    • (b) Maharana Pratap
    • (c) Maharana Kumbha
    • (d) Maharana Udai Singh
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. How many silver medals was won by India in Tokyo Paralympic 2020?

    • (a) 7
    • (b) 6
    • (c) 8
    • (d) 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 4. Figure for question 4

    • (a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
    • (b) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
    • (c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    • (d) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Pectin, which is responsible for the firmness and softness of fruits, is mainly composed of which acid unit?

    • (a) Aspartic acid
    • (b) Galacturonic acid
    • (c) Lactic acid
    • (d) Glutamic acid
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. Sporophyte stage is dominant in which plant group?

    • (a) Bryophytes
    • (b) Vascular plants
    • (c) Algae
    • (d) Pteridophytes
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. The country can improve its balance of payments by devaluation when the sum of elasticity of demand for exports and imports is ________.

    • (a) less than unity
    • (b) equal to unity
    • (c) greater than unity
    • (d) zero
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 8. __________ became India’s first sports unicorn with its market cap having touched a high of Rs.7,600 crores as of 30 January 2022.

    • (a) Delhi Capitals
    • (b) Kolkata Knight Riders
    • (c) Mumbai Indians
    • (d) Chennai Super Kings
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Which of the following committees was constituted to study the issues and concerns in the Micro Finance Institution in 2010?

    • (a) Ghosh Committee
    • (b) Sivaraman Committee
    • (c) Malegam Committee
    • (d) Khan Committee
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. India borrowed the DPSP from the _______ Constitution.

    • (a) Australian
    • (b) Irish
    • (c) German
    • (d) Austrian
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. Tamladu is a festival celebrated by the Buddhist community of which Indian state?

    • (a) Karnataka
    • (b) Arunachal Pradesh
    • (c) Madhya Pradesh
    • (d) Himachal Pradesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 12. Iron mines in Jharkhand attributed to the rise of which of the following kingdoms in ancient India?

    • (a) Kuru
    • (b) Magadha
    • (c) Kashi
    • (d) Kushan
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 13. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about granite?

    • (a) Granite is the most abundant rock in the continental crust.
    • (b) It is the most common sedimentary rock.
    • (c) These are igneous rocks that form when hot, molten rock crystallises and solidifies.
    • (d) Granite is composed mainly of quartz and feldspar with minor amounts of mica.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 14. ‘Luddi’ is a folk dance of which of the following states of India?

    • (a) Manipur
    • (b) Punjab
    • (c) Madhya Pradesh
    • (d) Kerala
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. Commonwealth Games 2022 was held in _______.

    • (a) Birmingham
    • (b) Beijing
    • (c) Tokyo
    • (d) New Delhi
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 16. ‘Back to Vedas’ was the slogan of which Reform Movement?

    • (a) Dev Samaj
    • (b) Brahmo Samaj
    • (c) Prarthana Samaj
    • (d) Arya Samaj
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 17. Which among the following statements about judicial review in India are correct? A. Judicial review means that the courts of law have the power of testing the validity of legislative as well as other governmental action with reference to the provisions of the Constitution. B. Under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review was described in the Fundamental Rights in Part III. C. The power of judicial review is significantly vested upon the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India.

    • (a) A and B only
    • (b) B and C only
    • (c) A and C only
    • (d) A, B and C
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 18. The Ministry of Education (MoE) in February 2022 approved a new scheme _______ for the next five years to cover all the aspects of adult education to align with new the National Education Policy (NEP).

    • (a) Open Education Programme
    • (b) ASHA
    • (c) New India Education Plan
    • (d) New India Literacy Programme
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 19. According to India State of Forest Report 2019, what is the total forest cover in India?

    • (a) 20.87%
    • (b) 21.67%
    • (c) 24.67%
    • (d) 23.67%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. ‘Ras-Lila’ recognised as one of the classical dance forms of India belongs to which of the following states?

    • (a) Assam
    • (b) Meghalaya
    • (c) Tripura
    • (d) Manipur
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 21. The Viceroy who took keen interest in the restoration and protection of historical monuments was _____________.

    • (a) Lord Ellenborough
    • (b) Lord Auckland
    • (c) Lord Lytton
    • (d) Lord Curzon
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  22. 22. The Amara-Nayakas were ________ in Vijayanagara Empire.

    • (a) forced labourers
    • (b) finance officers
    • (c) ordinary peasants
    • (d) military commanders
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  23. 23. What is the colour of the flame when unsaturated hydrocarbons burn?

    • (a) Blue
    • (b) Red
    • (c) Green
    • (d) Yellow
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. The ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ was launched by which government during the financial year 2015-2016?

    • (a) Government of Punjab
    • (b) Government of Haryana
    • (c) Government of India
    • (d) Government of Uttar Pradesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  25. 25. Who among the following Supreme Court judges was in news in 2022 for recusing himself from hearing a plea against the ED chief’s tenure extension?

    • (a) Justice KM Joseph
    • (b) Justice Ajay Rastogi
    • (c) Justice SK Kaul
    • (d) Justice Mukesh Shah
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 12.5% per annum for 6 years is ₹13,500 less than the principal. Find the simple interest.

    • (a) ₹13,500
    • (b) ₹54,000
    • (c) ₹40,000
    • (d) ₹40,500
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. Figure for question 2

    • (a) Figure for question 2, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 2, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 2, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 2, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. Ram has an average score of 65 runs in 19 innings in cricket matches. Find out how many runs are to be scored by him in the 20th innings to raise the average score to 67.

    • (a) 135
    • (b) 105
    • (c) 115
    • (d) 195
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. A metallic cube has each of its side of length 12 cm. It is melted and recast into three small cubes. Out of these cubes, two have their sides as 6 cm and 8 cm, respectively. The length of each side of the third cube is:

    • (a) 7 cm
    • (b) 9 cm
    • (c) 10 cm
    • (d) 5 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 5. A policeman starts chasing a thief when he was already 600 m ahead. If the policeman is running at a speed of 9 km/h and the thief at 8 km/h, then the thief would be caught at a distance of:

    • (a) 6.5 km
    • (b) 6 km
    • (c) 5 km
    • (d) 5.4 km
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. A shopkeeper bought certain number of apples for Rs.3,600. He sold one-fifth of them at a loss of 10%, one-fourth of the remaining apples at a loss of 5%, and two-third of the rest at a profit of 15%. At what price (in Rs.) should he sell the remaining apples to earn a profit of 27% overall?

    • (a) 1,548
    • (b) 1,584
    • (c) 1,845
    • (d) 1,864
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 25 women complete it?

    • (a) 20
    • (b) 16
    • (c) 25
    • (d) 18
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. Figure for question 8

    • (a) Figure for question 8, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 8, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 8, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 8, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 9. Find the remainder when 88 + 6 is divided by 7.

    • (a) 0
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 10. What value of 'y' will satisfy the following equation?Figure for question 10

    • (a) Figure for question 10, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 10, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 10, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 10, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 11. In a division sum, the divisor is 13 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 39, then the dividend is:

    • (a) 4240
    • (b) 4576
    • (c) 4251
    • (d) 4800
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 12. If tan α = 6, then sec α equals to:

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. Figure for question 13

    • (a) 1.11
    • (b) 1.22
    • (c) 1.33
    • (d) 1.44
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. Figure for question 14

    • (a) 21 cm
    • (b) 18 cm
    • (c) 20 cm
    • (d) 22 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  15. 15. Figure for question 15

    • (a) 5774
    • (b) 4096
    • (c) 5776
    • (d) 5778
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 16. Figure for question 16

    • (a) Length of a sector
    • (b) Area of an arc
    • (c) Radius of a circle
    • (d) Length of an arc
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 17. A thief seeing a policeman from a distance of 400 m started running at a speed of 16 km/h. The policeman chased him immediately with a speed of 18 km/h and the thief was caught. What is the distance run by the thief before he was caught by the policeman?

    • (a) 3200 m
    • (b) 3230 m
    • (c) 3240 m
    • (d) 3220 m
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 18. A group of men decided to do a job in 13 days but 9 men left the work after each day. The work, as a result, got completed in 16 days. How many men were initially in the group?

    • (a) 378
    • (b) 360
    • (c) 330
    • (d) 380
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 19. Applied to a bill for ₹50,000, the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4%,is :

    • (a) ₹875
    • (b) ₹1,440
    • (c) ₹1,250
    • (d) ₹720
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. 20. Raju and Rajat working together take 5 days to complete a piece of work. If Raju alone can do this work in 7 days, how long would Rajat take to complete the same work?

    • (a) 18 days
    • (b) 16.5 days
    • (c) 17 days
    • (d) 17.5 days
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 21. Figure for question 21

    • (a) 126
    • (b) 150
    • (c) 110
    • (d) 135
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 22. A field is 150 m long and 80 wide. How many times (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is its perimeter to the length of its diagonal?

    • (a) 2.3
    • (b) 2.5
    • (c) 2.7
    • (d) 3.1
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 23. When two circles of radii r1 and r2 have their centres at a distance d apart, then length of the common transverse tangent is:

    • (a) Figure for question 23, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 23, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 23, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 23, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. Figure for question 24

    • (a) Figure for question 24, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 24, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 24, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 24, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 25. Figure for question 25

    • (a) 9
    • (b) 5
    • (c) 6
    • (d) 0
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A speech by an actor at the end of a play

    • (a) Prologue
    • (b) Monologue
    • (c) Epilogue
    • (d) Duologue
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 2. Select the option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word. Incompetent

    • (a) Forlorn
    • (b) Desperate
    • (c) Hopeless
    • (d) Dexterous
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. Someone who lives in solitude

    • (a) Metropolitan
    • (b) Cosmopolitan
    • (c) Recluse
    • (d) Refugee
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 4. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Lord Ganesha, the Destroyer of Obstacles, is worshipped for his wisdom and brilliance. B.People adore the goddess Lakshmi and Lord Ganesha on Diwali. C.This 'New Year' i.e., Diwali is marked by merchants establishing new account books. D.Goddess Lakshmi is also worshipped on Diwali for wealth and success.

    • (a) DABC
    • (b) BADC
    • (c) ADBC
    • (d) CDBA
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. Identify the option that can be substituted as the correct idiom for the underlined part of the given sentence. As soon as the principal came to know about the inspection in the school, he put everything in perfect order.

    • (a) Apple pie order
    • (b) Apple of discord
    • (c) Alley apple
    • (d) Apple of one’s eye
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 7. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Raghav had a good ______ for stage plays.

    • (a) trip
    • (b) trope
    • (c) troop
    • (d) troupe
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 8. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. We hardly knew nothing / about the manager / who had recently joined.

    • (a) We hardly knew nothing
    • (b) No error
    • (c) about the manager
    • (d) who had recently joined
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 9. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. Here / come / the bus / for Lucknow.

    • (a) for Lucknow
    • (b) the bus
    • (c) come
    • (d) Here
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 10. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

    • (a) Tour
    • (b) Triumph
    • (c) Sandwitch
    • (d) Process
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 11. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. The growing population of India will have been controlled by the Indian government by 2040.

    • (a) By 2040, the Indian population will have continued to grow uncontrollably
    • (b) By 2040, the Indian government will have controlled the growing population of India.
    • (c) By 2040, the Indian government is successfully controlling the growing population of India.
    • (d) The Indian population will have stabilised by 2022.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 12. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. One who loves mankind

    • (a) Atheist
    • (b) Pessimist
    • (c) Optimist
    • (d) Philanthropist
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 13. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

    • (a) Allimony
    • (b) Structural
    • (c) Hallucinate
    • (d) Halloween
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 14. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Judicious

    • (a) Sensible
    • (b) Imprudent
    • (c) Careless
    • (d) Short-sighted
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 15. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Which _________ do you usually take to reach your office?

    • (a) route
    • (b) root
    • (c) rout
    • (d) rude
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 16. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Extol

    • (a) Reward
    • (b) Punish
    • (c) Dismay
    • (d) Praise
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 17. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. Author’s explanatory remarks at the beginning of a book

    • (a) Preface
    • (b) Foreward
    • (c) Bibliography
    • (d) Biography
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 18. Identify how will you say that “The doctor treated the victims of the violence very carefully”, in the passive voice.

    • (a) The doctor was very careful while providing treatment to the victims
    • (b) The doctor’s care was shown to the victims of the violence
    • (c) The victims of the violence were treated very carefully by the doctor
    • (d) The victims were treated attentively by the doctor
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 19. Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. S1. He sat in his seat A.hardly showing any signs of hearing B.beside the bed, C.gazing sternly D.at the patient’s face S6. what they were saying to him.

    • (a) DABC
    • (b) BCDA
    • (c) DCAB
    • (d) DBAC
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 20. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Hundreds of firms went bankrupt during the _________.

    • (a) recission
    • (b) revision
    • (c) remission
    • (d) recession
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Changes to the earth's climate, driven by increased (1)______ of heat-trapping greenhouse gases, are already having widespread effects on the environment. Shrinking of glaciers and ice sheets, occurrence of shifts in flower/plant blooming times, etc., are creating an overall (2)________ in the natural ecosystem. Conditions like the rise in sea-levels and saltwater intrusion have advanced to the point where whole (3)__________ have had to relocate, while protracted droughts are putting people at risk of (4)________. The effects of human-caused global warming are (5)_______ for people alive today and will worsen as long as humans keep feeding greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

  21. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

    • (a) emission
    • (b) feeding
    • (c) creation
    • (d) fertilisation
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

    • (a) despondence
    • (b) imbalance
    • (c) hunger
    • (d) creativity
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

    • (a) mobs
    • (b) people
    • (c) communities
    • (d) conditions
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  24. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

    • (a) pregnancy
    • (b) famine
    • (c) overpopulation
    • (d) surgery
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

    • (a) heart breaking
    • (b) contradictory
    • (c) irreversible
    • (d) conditional
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(b)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(a)
Q 10
(d)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(c)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(d)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(b)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(c)

General Awareness

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(c)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(b)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(d)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(d)
Q 21
(d)
Q 22
(d)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(c)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(c)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(a)
Q 9
(a)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(c)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(d)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(b)
Q 19
(d)
Q 20
(d)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(b)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(c)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(c)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(a)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(a)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(a)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(d)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(d)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(c)
Q 24
(b)
Q 25
(c)