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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2022 Tier I — 6 December 2022, Shift 1 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2022-tier-1-6-dec-shift-1/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2022 Tier I — 6 December 2022, Shift 1

6 December 2022 · 9:00 AM–10:00 AM93 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

7 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 6 December 2022, 9:00 AM–10:00 AM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.) (2, 8, 36) (4, 9, 25)

    • (a) (14, 18, 9)
    • (b) (13, 20, 49)
    • (c) (21, 15, 35)
    • (d) (12, 14, 26)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? MU, NE, PX, QF, SA, TG, ?

    • (a) UC
    • (b) VE
    • (c) VD
    • (d) VC
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. In a certain code language, 'PLANNED' is written as 'RNCNPGF' and ‘PROMOTE’ is written as ‘RTQMQVG’. How will 'IMPROVE' be written in that language?

    • (a) KORTQXG
    • (b) KORRQXG
    • (c) KOQRQXG
    • (d) KORTOXG
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. In a certain code language, 'BELL’ is coded as '111141' and 'HEAR' is coded as '172647'. How will 'MIKE' be coded in that language?

    • (a) 410813
    • (b) 410811
    • (c) 410812
    • (d) 410612
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 5. Figure for question 5

    • (a) Figure for question 5, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 5, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 5, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 5, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 6. By interchanging the given two signs which of the following equation will be not correct? × and –

    • (a) 15 + 5 ÷ 1 – 9 × 4 = 70
    • (b) 5 – 6 × 3 + 16 ÷ 4 = 31
    • (c) 11 + 6 × 3 – 8 ÷ 2 = 5
    • (d) 15 – 4 × 3 + 6 ÷ 1 = 63
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 7. Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the given pair of words. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Police : Protection

    • (a) Minister : Governance
    • (b) Thief : Jail
    • (c) King : Kingdom
    • (d) Teacher : Class
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 8. Figure for question 8

    • (a) Figure for question 8, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 8, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 8, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 8, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 67, 78, 71, 82, 75, 86, ?

    • (a) 97
    • (b) 92
    • (c) 84
    • (d) 79
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. LEISURE : USIELER :: INTENSE : NETNIES :: EXCITED : ?

    • (a) CTEDEXI
    • (b) TICXEDE
    • (c) EXEDTCI
    • (d) XEDETCI
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 13. Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

    • (a) SXHP
    • (b) UZFR
    • (c) XCCU
    • (d) VCDR
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 14. A & B means ‘A is the son of B’ A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’ A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ A − B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’ If C # D @ E % Z & L # M – N * P, then how is E related to L?

    • (a) Husband
    • (b) Son
    • (c) Father
    • (d) Son-in-law
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 15. If A – B means that A is the brother of B, A + B means that A is the sister of B, A × B means that A is the father of B then which of the following expression shows that P is the brother of R?

    • (a) P – Q + R
    • (b) P + Q – R
    • (c) P × Q + R
    • (d) P – Q × R
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 16. Figure for question 16

    • (a) 1
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 17. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and balance the given equation. 5 * 15 * 320 * 2 * 45 = 190

    • (a) +, ÷, ×, −
    • (b) ×, +, ÷, −
    • (c) +, ×, ÷, −
    • (d) ×, ÷, −, +
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 18. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets: (7,11, 72) (5, 8, 39) (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

    • (a) (4, 7, 33)
    • (b) (2, 3, 1)
    • (c) (5, 2, 23)
    • (d) (5, 6, 13)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 19. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation. 30 * 4 * 2 * 1 * 121

    • (a) ×, +, −, =
    • (b) ×, −, ÷, =
    • (c) ×, −, +, =
    • (d) ÷, +, −, =
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 20. Select the set in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (267, 128, 139)

    • (a) (267, 132, 135)
    • (b) (325, 112, 215)
    • (c) (365, 154, 211)
    • (d) (297, 146, 151)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 21. In the following question, four number pairs are given. In each pair the number on left side of (–) is related to the number of the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three pairs are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

    • (a) 15 – 220
    • (b) 9 – 84
    • (c) 13 – 172
    • (d) 11 – 124
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. QRM, PWD, OBU, NGL, ?

    • (a) MLC
    • (b) MQR
    • (c) MRS
    • (d) MCL
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  21. 23. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some tests are exams. Some exams are viva. All viva are theories. Conclusions: I. Some theories are exams. II. Some theories are viva. III. Some tests are viva.

    • (a) Only conclusions II and III follow
    • (b) Only conclusions I and II follow
    • (c) Only conclusions I and III follow
    • (d) All conclusions follow
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 24. Figure for question 24

    • (a) Figure for question 24, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 24, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 24, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 24, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 25. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: I. All Z are X. II. All G are X. Conclusions: I. Some G are Z. II. All X are G. III. Some Z are X.

    • (a) Both conclusions I and III follows
    • (b) Only conclusion III follows
    • (c) Neither conclusion follows
    • (d) Both conclusions II and III follows
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

General Awareness

  1. 1. Chemical formula of washing soda is ______.

    • (a) Na2CO3.10H2O
    • (b) Na2SO4
    • (c) NaOH
    • (d) NaHCO3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of National Income?

    • (a) It is a macroeconomic concept.
    • (b) It is a flow concept.
    • (c) It is always expressed with reference to the financial year.
    • (d) It is included only in intermediate goods.
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. According to census 2011, the child sex ratio was ______ females per 1000 males.

    • (a) 919
    • (b) 909
    • (c) 929
    • (d) 939
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dancer Yamini Krishnamurthy was awarded which of the following awards in 2016?

    • (a) Padma Bhushan
    • (b) Padma Shri
    • (c) Tagore Puraskar
    • (d) Padma Vibhushan
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. According to the archaeologists, in Harappan cities the part to the west was smaller and higher, was known as______.

    • (a) citadel
    • (b) Olympus
    • (c) lower town
    • (d) colosseum
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 6. In November 2022, retired Army officer Raj Shukla has been appointed as a member of the _______.

    • (a) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
    • (b) Union Public Service Commission
    • (c) Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
    • (d) Bureau of Indian Standards
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. In June 2022, the Supreme Court directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum _______ starting from their demarcated boundaries.

    • (a) 1 km
    • (b) 3 km
    • (c) 2 km
    • (d) 5 km
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 8. What happens to the decomposition rate when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin?

    • (a) It is negligible
    • (b) It is faster
    • (c) There is no movement
    • (d) It is slower
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Rani Karnaa Nayak, who was awarded the Padma Shri in 2014, was a _______ dancer.

    • (a) Odissi
    • (b) Mohiniyattam
    • (c) Kathak
    • (d) Kathakali
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. Black Card given to a badminton player during the game indicates:

    • (a) suspension
    • (b) fault
    • (c) warning
    • (d) disqualification
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 11. Who has been appointed as NITI Aayog’s new Vice Chairman in May 2022?

    • (a) S Somnath
    • (b) Suman Bery
    • (c) Tarun Kapoor
    • (d) Manoj Pande
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 12. Who among the following is said to have devised many Raagas or melodies in Hindustani music?

    • (a) Tansen
    • (b) Raja Beerbal
    • (c) Todar Mal
    • (d) Raja Man Singh
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 13. Vernacular press Act was enacted in which year?

    • (a) 1875
    • (b) 1876
    • (c) 1878
    • (d) 1877
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. Which of the following is NOT a conductor?

    • (a) Hard rubber
    • (b) Copper
    • (c) Silver
    • (d) Nickel
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides for how many types of freedoms?

    • (a) 13
    • (b) 44
    • (c) 30
    • (d) 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 16. Who among the following belonged to the ancient chiefly family of the Cholas from Uraiyur, captured the Kaveri delta from the Muttaraiyar in the middle of the ninth century?

    • (a) Gandaraditya
    • (b) Vijayalaya
    • (c) Parantaka I
    • (d) Aditya I
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 17. Sarojini Naidu was elected first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress at __________.

    • (a) Kanpur
    • (b) Ahmedabad
    • (c) Delhi
    • (d) Nagpur
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 18. Which branch of the government is responsible for implementing laws and policies?

    • (a) Judiciary
    • (b) Legislature
    • (c) Executive
    • (d) NITI Aayog
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 19. In a food chain, secondary producers are ______.

    • (a) omnivores
    • (b) herbivores
    • (c) carnivores
    • (d) decomposers
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. Which among the following crops is related to the “Rabi” season in North India?

    • (a) Rice
    • (b) Jowar
    • (c) Maize
    • (d) Barley
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 21. Thousands of people from all walks of life took part in the ______ organised at Hyderabad in May 2022 to mark the 25-day countdown to International Day of Yoga.

    • (a) Yoga Sutra
    • (b) Yoga Utsav
    • (c) Yoga Mahotsav
    • (d) Yoga Umang
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 22. Mango showers are common in ______________.

    • (a) Uttar Pradesh
    • (b) Kerala
    • (c) Maharashtra
    • (d) West Bengal
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. In the first phase of the green revolution, the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent of which group of states?

    • (a) Punjab, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
    • (b) Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh
    • (c) Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
    • (d) Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  24. 24. Sunanda Nair is famous for performing which of the following dance forms?

    • (a) Kathak
    • (b) Odissi
    • (c) Yakshagana
    • (d) Mohiniyattam
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 25. The flat topped table land standing above the surrounding area is called ______.

    • (a) Hill
    • (b) Plateau
    • (c) Mountain
    • (d) Valley
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. The value of 97 × 103 is _________.

    • (a) 7999
    • (b) 9991
    • (c) 8991
    • (d) 9981
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. The simple interest received on a sum is 25/36 of the sum. The number of years is equal to the annual rate of interest. What is the annual rate of interest?

    • (a) 9.25 percent
    • (b) 10.25 percent
    • (c) 6.62 percent
    • (d) 8.33 percent
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. Two candidates P and Q contested in an election. 70% of the registered voters are P supporters. If 60% of the P supporters and 30% of the Q supporters are expected to vote for candidate P, then what percentage of the registered voters are expected to vote for candidate P?

    • (a) 30%
    • (b) 51%
    • (c) 26%
    • (d) 47%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. If the length of certain rectangle is decreased by 4 cm and breadth is increased by 2 cm, it would result in a square of the same area. What is the perimeter of the original rectangle?

    • (a) 15 cm
    • (b) 24 cm
    • (c) 20 cm
    • (d) 10 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 6. The mid points of AB and AC of a ∆ABC are X and Y, respectively. If BC + XY = 24 units, then the value of BC − XY is:

    • (a) 5 cm
    • (b) 4 cm
    • (c) 6 cm
    • (d) 8 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 7. Sonali applied for a job of Science teacher in a school. In the test for job, she scored 8 in Physics, 8 in Chemistry, 6 in Biology, and 6.5 in the interview. For calculating the final score, weightage of 2, 3, 3, and 4 were assigned to Physics, Chemistry, Biology and interview, respectively. What is the weighted average score of Sonali?

    • (a) 7
    • (b) 8.4
    • (c) 7.2
    • (d) 21
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 8. Figure for question 8

    • (a) 1324
    • (b) 1200
    • (c) 1430
    • (d) 1494
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 9. Find the greatest number that will divide 49, 147 and 322 to leave the same remainder in each case.

    • (a) 9
    • (b) 5
    • (c) 7
    • (d) 8
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 10. If b sin θ = a, then sec θ + tan θ = ?

    • (a) Figure for question 10, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 10, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 10, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 10, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 11. The mean proportional of a and b is c. What is the mean proportional of a2 c and b2 c?

    • (a) Figure for question 11, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 11, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 11, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 11, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 12. Find the area of the sector of a circle with radius 4cm and angle 30°.

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 13. Figure for question 13

    • (a) Figure for question 13, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 13, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 13, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 13, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 14. Figure for question 14

    • (a) Figure for question 14, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 14, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 14, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 14, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 15. Figure for question 15

    • (a) 51.5
    • (b) 51.25
    • (c) 50
    • (d) 55.25
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 16. Figure for question 16

    • (a) 23
    • (b) 21
    • (c) 17
    • (d) 19
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 17. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days respectively. If B works daily and is supported by A and C on alternate days beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be finished?

    • (a) Figure for question 17, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 17, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 17, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 17, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 18. Figure for question 18

    • (a) 1
    • (b) 3
    • (c) 5
    • (d) 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 19. What will be the value of sin 10° – 4/3 sin3 10°?

    • (a) Figure for question 19, option (a)
    • (b) 1/6
    • (c) Figure for question 19, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 19, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 20. Successive discounts of 18% and 22% are equal to a single discount of ______.

    • (a) 36.04%
    • (b) 35.04%
    • (c) 37.04%
    • (d) 34.04%
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 21. AD is the median of triangle ABC. P is the centroid of triangle ABC. If AP = 14 cm, then what is the length of PD?

    • (a) 14 cm
    • (b) 28 cm
    • (c) 21 cm
    • (d) 7 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 22. A man lost 15% by selling a mobile for Rs.4,675. What will be his gain percentage by selling it for Rs.6,050?

    • (a) 10.5%
    • (b) 9.5%
    • (c) 9%
    • (d) 10%
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  22. 23. Figure for question 23

    • (a) 55
    • (b) 49
    • (c) 42
    • (d) 35
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 24. A wire is in the form of square with side 11 cm. It is bent to form a circle. What is the radius of the circle?

    • (a) 11 cm
    • (b) 5 cm
    • (c) 9 cm
    • (d) 7 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 25. The table given below shows the production of beauty products by five different companies. What is the ratio of production of beauty product by A to the production of beauty product by E?Figure for question 25

    • (a) 7 : 4
    • (b) 4 : 5
    • (c) 6 : 5
    • (d) 5 : 6
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’. I have reached the hotel, by the time you call me.

    • (a) will be reaching the hotel
    • (b) No substitution
    • (c) will have reached the hotel
    • (d) had reached the hotel
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 2. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence. The promises made by the old minister were fulfilled.

    • (a) Contemporary
    • (b) Aged
    • (c) Recent
    • (d) Vernal
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 3. Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence. He consolidated his position as the leader of the political party.

    • (a) Weakened
    • (b) Devised
    • (c) Strengthened
    • (d) Formulated
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A.It is a very popular character and is the mascot for Walt Disney company. B.Mickey generally appears with his girlfriend Minnie Mouse and pet Pluto. C.The animated movies on Mickey mouse have been nominated for the Academy award. D.Mickey mouse is a fictional cartoon character created by Walt Disney in 1928.

    • (a) DABC
    • (b) ADBC
    • (c) ACDB
    • (d) BACD
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 5. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. The prisoner was / accused for stealing / from his landlord.

    • (a) accused for stealing
    • (b) The prisoner was
    • (c) from his landlord
    • (d) No error
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 6. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. The lecture by the French professor seemed Latin and Greek to the young students.

    • (a) Interesting
    • (b) Lucid
    • (c) Unbiased
    • (d) Incomprehensible
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. We ensure that you will get a ___________ chauffeur with the right car for your day.

    • (a) novice
    • (b) uniformed
    • (c) dabbler
    • (d) riotous
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

    • (a) Compact
    • (b) Compell
    • (c) Currently
    • (d) Savage
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  9. 9. Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘consensus’ from the following sentence. The landowner and the tenant mutually came to an agreement for decisive acceptance of its clause.

    • (a) Decisive
    • (b) Acceptance
    • (c) Mutually
    • (d) Agreement
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative. She rubbed her hands over her arms, and then _______ her purse, headed inside the convenience store.

    • (a) snapping
    • (b) slaying
    • (c) pinching
    • (d) grabbing
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 12. Select the most appropriate option to replace the underlined segment in the given sentence. Old people acquire experience through age.

    • (a) got experience
    • (b) developed experience
    • (c) experienced
    • (d) gain experience
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 15. Choose the incorrectly spelt word.

    • (a) Assidous
    • (b) Disapproval
    • (c) Devastation
    • (d) Conjoined
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 16. Select the appropriate option to replace the underlined word with the adverb of frequency. He did not admit that his team played badly.

    • (a) never admitted
    • (b) yesterday admitted
    • (c) happily admitted
    • (d) willingly admitted
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 18. The question below consists of a set of labeled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P. There once was a little boy who had a very bad temper. Q. The boy gradually began to control his temper over the next few weeks, and the number of nails he was hammering into the fence slowly decreased. R. His father decided to hand him a bag of nails and said that every time the boy lost his temper, he had to hammer a nail into the fence. S. On the first day, the boy hammered 37 nails into that fence .

    • (a) QRSP
    • (b) PRSQ
    • (c) RPSQ
    • (d) QPRS
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 19. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word established from the given sentence: Siben feels great satisfaction and gratified when he finds his pupils established successfully in the society when a lot have been displaced because of several failed attempts.

    • (a) displaced
    • (b) fail
    • (c) gratified
    • (d) pupils
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 20. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said to him, "Is your name not Ahmed?"

    • (a) He enquired is your name not Ahmed.
    • (b) He enquired whether his name was not Ahmed.
    • (c) He said whether his name was not Ahmed.
    • (d) He said is your name not Ahmed.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. I will tell you what I will do and what I will not do. I will not (1) _____________ that in which I no longer believe, (2) ____________ it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church: and I will try to (3) _______________ myself in some mode of life or art as (4) _____________ as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my defense the only arms I (5) ____________ myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

  18. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

    • (a) serve
    • (b) drain
    • (c) lag
    • (d) debit
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2

    • (a) sometimes
    • (b) nevertheless
    • (c) whether
    • (d) presumably
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  20. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

    • (a) express
    • (b) disappear
    • (c) collect
    • (d) sterilise
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  21. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

    • (a) morbidly
    • (b) bleakly
    • (c) pithily
    • (d) freely
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  22. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

    • (a) behave
    • (b) allow
    • (c) caution
    • (d) effeminate
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(c)
Q 5
(a)
Q 6
(a)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(b)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(a)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(a)
Q 25
(b)

General Awareness

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(a)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(d)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(a)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(b)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(c)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(d)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(c)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(b)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(c)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(a)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(b)
Q 16
(b)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(a)
Q 21
(d)
Q 22
(d)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(c)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(c)
Q 2
(b)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(a)
Q 5
(a)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(b)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(d)
Q 12
(d)
Q 15
(a)
Q 16
(a)
Q 18
(b)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(a)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(b)