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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2022 Tier I — 12 December 2022, Shift 3 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2022-tier-1-12-dec-shift-3/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2022 Tier I — 12 December 2022, Shift 3

12 December 2022 · 2:30 PM–3:30 PM97 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

3 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 12 December 2022, 2:30 PM–3:30 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some spices are medicines. All medicines are chemicals. No chemical is cheap. Conclusions: I. Some medicines are cheap. II. Some chemicals are spices. III. No medicine is cheap.

    • (a) Only conclusions I and III follow.
    • (b) Only conclusions II and III follow.
    • (c) Only conclusions I and II follow.
    • (d) All conclusions follow.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation. 50 * 25 * 10 * 2 * 175

    • (a) +, ÷, ×, =
    • (b) −, ×, ÷, =
    • (c) −, ×, +, =
    • (d) +, ×, ÷, =
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 3. If R ÷ S means that R is the mother of S, R × S means that R is the father of S, R – S means that R is the sister of S, then which of the following expression shows that P is the father of R?

    • (a) P × Q ÷ R
    • (b) Q × P – R
    • (c) R × Q – P
    • (d) P × Q – R
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 10 × 11 + 19 - 323 ÷ 3 = 50

    • (a) 10 and 19, - and +
    • (b) 3 and 19, - and ×
    • (c) 10 and 11, - and ÷
    • (d) 10 and 323, + and ÷
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. In a certain code language, 'CAKES’ is written as 'FXNBV' and 'ABUSE' is written as 'DYXPH'. How will 'BARKS' be written in that language?

    • (a) EXVHU
    • (b) EXUIU
    • (c) EXUIV
    • (d) EXUHV
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. What was the day of the week on 26th November 1994?

    • (a) Friday
    • (b) Wednesday
    • (c) Saturday
    • (d) Thursday
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 7. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. COMB, GIUR, KCCH, OWKX, ?

    • (a) SRQM
    • (b) MNQR
    • (c) SQSN
    • (d) SMRQ
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 8. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.) (12, 313, 13) (11, 185, 8)

    • (a) (12, 158, 12)
    • (b) (4, 125, 11)
    • (c) (9, 90, 3)
    • (d) (15, 150, 10)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 9. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (6, 17, 408) (13, 27, 1404)

    • (a) (9, 27, 245)
    • (b) (17, 28, 952)
    • (c) (5, 82, 1200)
    • (d) (4, 26, 416)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Figure for question 10

    • (a) 6
    • (b) 5
    • (c) 4
    • (d) 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: I. All W are L. II. All L are M. Conclusions: I. No L is W. II. No M is L. III. No M is W.

    • (a) Only conclusion II follows
    • (b) Only conclusion I follows
    • (c) All conclusion follows
    • (d) Neither conclusion follows
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. Figure for question 12

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 13. Figure for question 13

    • (a) Figure for question 13, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 13, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 13, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 13, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

    • (a) LJI
    • (b) GDA
    • (c) NLK
    • (d) TRQ
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to complete the following letter cluster series? RD, JF, DJ, ZP, ?

    • (a) XY
    • (b) YY
    • (c) XX
    • (d) WX
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 16. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. STABLE : AEQRZJ :: TARGET : AERPER :: VISUAL : ?

    • (a) IUATQJ
    • (b) UATWJQ
    • (c) HATQUI
    • (d) TAUIQJ
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 17. By interchanging the given two signs and numbers which of the following equation will be not correct? × and +, 7 and 4 I. 7 × 8 + 4 – 6 ÷ 3 = 57 II. 4 × 8 – 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = 3

    • (a) Only II
    • (b) Only I
    • (c) Neither I nor II
    • (d) Both I and II
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 18. Figure for question 18

    • (a) Figure for question 18, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 18, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 18, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 18, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 19. In a certain code language, 'ENGINE' is written as ‘ENIGNE’ and 'TRAIN’ is written as 'NIART'. How will 'LEVEL' be written in that language?

    • (a) LEELV
    • (b) LEVEL
    • (c) LEEVL
    • (d) LELEV
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 20. Select the odd group of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

    • (a) (600 – 120 – 24)
    • (b) (400 – 80 – 14)
    • (c) (300 – 60 – 12)
    • (d) (500 – 100 – 20)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 21. Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term. 8 : 96 :: ? : 54 :: 12 : 216

    • (a) 8
    • (b) 6
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 22. A & B means ‘A is the son of B’ A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’ A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ A − B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’ If C # D @ E % Z & L # M − N * P, then how is L related to P?

    • (a) Wife
    • (b) Daughter
    • (c) Daughter-in-law
    • (d) Sister
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 23. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters / number of consonants / vowels in the word.) Panel : Jurors :: Portfolio : ?

    • (a) Trustees
    • (b) Securities
    • (c) Administration
    • (d) Companies
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 24. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 1, 4, 13, 40, ?, 364

    • (a) 132
    • (b) 121
    • (c) 120
    • (d) 124
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 25. Figure for question 25

    • (a) Figure for question 25, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 25, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 25, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 25, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

General Awareness

  1. 1. Which of the following statement is correct? I. The biggest state of India in terms of area is Uttar Pradesh. II. Rajasthan is the state of India which have highest population among all other states of India.

    • (a) Only I
    • (b) Neither I nor II
    • (c) Only II
    • (d) Both I and II
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. Who among the following is Telangana’s first Sangeet Natak Akademi Award winner?

    • (a) Padmaja Reddy
    • (b) Yamini Reddy
    • (c) Deepa Sashindran
    • (d) Shantala Shivalingappa
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. Who among the following became the first Asian to win the award for best sound for the documentary 'India’s Daughter' at the coveted Motion Picture Sound Editors’ 63rd annual Golden Reel Awards?

    • (a) Justin Jose
    • (b) Resul Pookutty
    • (c) P.M.Satheesh
    • (d) Boby John
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. Which of the following is known as ‘Plaster of Paris’?

    • (a) Figure for question 4, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 4, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 4, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 4, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. ______ is the centre for the Indian Institution of Soil Science.

    • (a) Porbandar
    • (b) Bhopal
    • (c) Vishakhapatnam
    • (d) Bhubaneswar
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. In 1873, the Satyashodhak Samaj was established in ____________.

    • (a) Bihar Province
    • (b) Madras Presidency
    • (c) Bombay Presidency
    • (d) Punjab Province
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 7. _______ are those where a monthly instalment is deposited in the accounts every month.

    • (a) savings bank deposits
    • (b) reinvestment deposits
    • (c) fixed deposits
    • (d) recurring deposits
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 8. When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen, it gets converted to ______.

    • (a) magnesium peroxide
    • (b) magnesium hydroxide
    • (c) magnesium carbonate
    • (d) magnesium oxide
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Which of the following rocks may contain fossils of plants, animals and other microorganisms that once lived on them?

    • (a) Metamorphic rocks
    • (b) Intrusive igneous rocks
    • (c) Sedimentary rocks
    • (d) Extrusive igneous rocks
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was a prominent singer of the ______________ gharana.

    • (a) Rampur Sahaswan
    • (b) Patiala
    • (c) Benaras
    • (d) Bhendi Bazaar
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. Union Government has launched the Eighth Edition of Swachh Survekshan SS-2023 under Swachh Bharat Mission Urban 2.0. It is curated towards achieving circularity in ________.

    • (a) industrial management
    • (b) waste management
    • (c) roads management
    • (d) rainwater management
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 12. Which of the following is NOT a way in which a batsman can get out in a game of cricket?

    • (a) Bowled
    • (b) Leg bye
    • (c) Stumped
    • (d) Leg before wicket
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 13. Ziyauddin Barani wrote his chronicle first in 1356 and another version _____ years later.

    • (a) three
    • (b) eight
    • (c) two
    • (d) five
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. If the State government dissolves the Panchayati Raj Institutions before the end of their five-year term, fresh elections should ordinarily be held within _____.

    • (a) one month
    • (b) six months
    • (c) one year
    • (d) three months
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. Which of the following categories did Ram Sahay Panday receive the Padma Shri 2022 in?

    • (a) Carnatic Music
    • (b) Distinguished service in the field of art
    • (c) Instrumentalist
    • (d) Singing
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 16. Which of the following Articles states that a State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them?

    • (a) Article 15
    • (b) Article 59
    • (c) Article 25
    • (d) Article 40
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 17. The Paramhans Mandali was established to work for the abolition of caste in ______.

    • (a) 1830
    • (b) 1840
    • (c) 1820
    • (d) 1850
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 18. What is the suffix for –OH group according to IUPAC?

    • (a) -ols
    • (b) -ene
    • (c) -one
    • (d) -anes
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 19. What is the duration of the lunch interval in a cricket test match?

    • (a) 25 minutes
    • (b) 35 minutes
    • (c) 30 minutes
    • (d) 40 minutes
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. 20. In 1653, which French scientist observed that if some pressure is applied to any point of an incompressible fluid, the same pressure is transmitted to all points of the fluid and to the walls of the vessel?

    • (a) Daniel Bernoulli
    • (b) Evangelista Torricelli
    • (c) Blaise Pascal
    • (d) Eugene Bourdon
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 21. Identify a marine alga that is used as food.

    • (a) Ulothrix
    • (b) Sargassum
    • (c) Spirogyra
    • (d) Volvox
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 22. Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister has launched a 'Naari Ko Naman' scheme that will allow women passengers in the state to pay only ______ of the fare for their travel within the state.

    • (a) 40%
    • (b) 20%
    • (c) 30%
    • (d) 50%
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  23. 23. What was the duration of Rolling Plan in India?

    • (a) 1975 to 1977
    • (b) 1977 to 1979
    • (c) 1976 to 1978
    • (d) 1978 to 1980
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 24. Who among the following was the founder of the Kanva dynasty?

    • (a) Narayana
    • (b) Susharman
    • (c) Vasudeva
    • (d) Devabhuti
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  25. 25. Who has been named as the new chief minister of Tripura in May 2022?

    • (a) Rajiv Rajan
    • (b) Sangeeta Singh
    • (c) Mahesh Verma
    • (d) Manik Saha
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 1. The HCF of three numbers 98, 175 and 210 will be:

    • (a) 6
    • (b) 3
    • (c) 5
    • (d) 7
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. If two circles of radii 18 cm and 8 cm touch externally, then the length of a direct common tangent is:

    • (a) 24 cm
    • (b) 14 cm
    • (c) 16 cm
    • (d) 12 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. The table given below shows the number of tractor sold by two companies. Figure for question 3 Number of tractor T5 sold by both companies is how much percent more than the number of tractor T2 sold by both companies?

    • (a) 162.66 percent
    • (b) 172.44 percent
    • (c) 266.32 percent
    • (d) 188.88 percent
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. Raghav purchased a shirt at Rs.1,500 and marked up the price of the shirt by 40%. What is the discount percentage he has to offer in order to get a profit of Rs.75?

    • (a) 25%
    • (b) 15%
    • (c) 75%
    • (d) 50%
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 6. If the seven-digit number 52A6B7C is divisible by 33, and A, B, C are primes, then the maximum value of 2A+3B+C is:

    • (a) 32
    • (b) 23
    • (c) 27
    • (d) 34
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 7. The diameters of two circles are 12 cm and 20 cm, respectively and the distance between their centres is 16 cm. Find the number of common tangents to the circles.

    • (a) 2
    • (b) 3
    • (c) 1
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 8. If tan3θ.tan7θ = 1, where 7θ is an acute angle, then find the value of cot15θ.

    • (a) Figure for question 8, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 8, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 8, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 8, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 9. The table given below shows the number of scissor sold by five shopkeepers. Figure for question 9 What are the ratio of number of scissor sold by R to the sold by S?

    • (a) 5 : 8
    • (b) 8 : 3
    • (c) 9 : 5
    • (d) 5 : 9
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 10. A watch is sold at a profit of 25%. Had it been sold for Rs.120 less then, there would have been a less then of 15%. What is the cost price in rupees?

    • (a) Rs.400
    • (b) Rs.350
    • (c) Rs.200
    • (d) Rs.300
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 11. Some students went on a field trip. At a speed of 6 km/h, they travelled by bikes for 2 hours; then at a speed of 2 km/h, they walked for another hour; then they took rest for an hour and had lunch for half an hour; then at a speed of 1 m/s, they walked for an hour to visit a garden; and finally at a speed 4 km/h, they returned home in 3 hours. Their average speed, in km/h, (rounded off to two places of decimal) is:

    • (a) 3.48
    • (b) 129.23
    • (c) 0.28
    • (d) 251.62
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 12. If the side of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm, then what is its area?

    • (a) Figure for question 12, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 12, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 12, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 12, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 13. In a proportion, the 1st, 2nd and 4th terms are 51, 68 and 108, respectively. What is the 3rd term?

    • (a) 84
    • (b) 83
    • (c) 82
    • (d) 81
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 14. Find the value of secθ – tanθ, if secθ + tanθ = √5.

    • (a) Figure for question 14, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 14, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 14, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 14, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 15. Figure for question 15

    • (a) F
    • (b) E
    • (c) D
    • (d) B
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 16. A person deposited ₹15,600 in a fixed deposit at 10% per annum simple interest. After every second year he adds his interest earned to the principal. The interest at the end of 4 years is:

    • (a) ₹6,655
    • (b) ₹6,864
    • (c) ₹3,975
    • (d) ₹3,744
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 17. If p = 8.15, q = 9.06 and r = −17.21, then the value of p3 + q3 + r3 − 3pqr is:

    • (a) −3.81
    • (b) −5.62
    • (c) 4.75
    • (d) 0
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 18. Out of an earning of Rs.720, Pankaj spends 65%. How much does he save?

    • (a) Rs.250
    • (b) Rs.252
    • (c) Rs.253
    • (d) Rs.251
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 19. Ram starts from point A at 8 a.m. and reaches point B at 2 p.m. on the same day. On the same day, Raju starts from point B at 8 a.m. and reaches point A at 6 p.m. on the same day. Both points A and B are separated by only a straight line track. At what time they both meet?

    • (a) 11:45 a.m.
    • (b) 9:42 a.m
    • (c) 10:42 a m.
    • (d) 12:42 p.m.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 20. A is 40% more efficient than B. How much time will both, working together, take to finish the work, which B alone can finish in 36 days?

    • (a) Figure for question 20, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 20, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 20, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 20, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  20. 22. Area of the floor of a cubical room is 64 m2. The length of the longest rod that can be kept in the room is:

    • (a) Figure for question 22, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 22, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 22, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 22, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 23. Figure for question 23

    • (a) 4
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 1
    • (d) 0
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 24. Figure for question 24

    • (a) Figure for question 24, option (a)
    • (b) Figure for question 24, option (b)
    • (c) Figure for question 24, option (c)
    • (d) Figure for question 24, option (d)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 25. The pie chart given below shows the marks obtained by student Q in 6 different subjects. The total marks obtained by the student in these subjects is 700. Marks obtained in a particular subject is shown as a percent of total marks obtained in all these 6 subjects. Figure for question 25 What is total marks obtained in Q, S and U?

    • (a) 312
    • (b) 306
    • (c) 294
    • (d) 308
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

English Comprehension

  1. 1. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Feud

    • (a) Harmony
    • (b) Distrust
    • (c) Unfriendliness
    • (d) Destruct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. I don’t like being seen in tears by people.

    • (a) I don’t like people had been seeing me in tears.
    • (b) I don’t like people seeing me in tears.
    • (c) I don’t like people to see me in tears.
    • (d) I don’t like myself to be seen in tears.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 3. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Eat humble pie

    • (a) To apologise humbly
    • (b) To live in penury
    • (c) To live a life of humility
    • (d) To enjoy life to the fullest
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence. It is a deeply regrettable fact that deforestation has had a substantial consequenses on the environment.

    • (a) deforestation
    • (b) substantial
    • (c) regrettable
    • (d) consequenses
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Select the sentence with the appropriate use of preposition.

    • (a) Are you interested along with modern art?
    • (b) Are you interested into modern art?
    • (c) Are you interested with modern art?
    • (d) Are you interested in modern art?
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words. While I was travelling in Europe, I met a man who drew maps.

    • (a) Cartographer
    • (b) Geographer
    • (c) Arbitrator
    • (d) Anthropologist
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 7. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’. Scores given by the members are to be consolidated and sent in the head office immediately.

    • (a) No substitution
    • (b) after the head office
    • (c) at the head office
    • (d) to the head office
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 8. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Abominable

    • (a) Worthy
    • (b) Delectable
    • (c) Admirable
    • (d) Detestable
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 9. Select the sentences that contains no spelling errors.

    • (a) I saw the dress catalouge pieces of Asha’s corchiture collection.
    • (b) I saw the dress catalougue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.
    • (c) I saw the dress catalougue pieces of Asha’s corchiture collection.
    • (d) I saw the dress catalogue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. After the government interventions, the enrolment and retention of female students have increased by leaps and bounds.

    • (a) Systematically
    • (b) Swiftly
    • (c) Intermittently
    • (d) Gradually
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the collocation. I had a nice ______ on my birthday with all my friends and relatives.

    • (a) opportunity
    • (b) day
    • (c) experience
    • (d) time
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. Select the correct passive voice form for the given sentence. My brother likes cricket.

    • (a) Cricket was like by my brother.
    • (b) Cricket is like by my brother.
    • (c) Cricket is liked by my brother.
    • (d) Cricket was liked by my brother.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 14. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. You must aware of friends who speak against you.

    • (a) caution of
    • (b) beware of
    • (c) scarce of
    • (d) careful of
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 15. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in a sentence. The good weather has been a boon for many businesses located near the beach.

    • (a) luck
    • (b) Signal
    • (c) fortune
    • (d) beneficial
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 16. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. While India is home to 75 per cent of tigers in the world, the Global Tiger Day – as it is also known – sees awareness events organised in the country, as well as neighbouring Bangladesh and Nepal. B. Its primary objective is to preserve the natural habitat of the tiger. C. International Tiger Day was initiated in 2010, at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit. D. This annual event, observed on 29 July, aims to create awareness on tiger conservation.

    • (a) DCAB
    • (b) BADC
    • (c) CDBA
    • (d) CDAB
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 17. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. One who runs away from law

    • (a) Fatalist
    • (b) Convict
    • (c) Fugitive
    • (d) Lunatic
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 18. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. Words that begin with the same letter, syllable or sound

    • (a) Metaphor
    • (b) Pun
    • (c) Hyperbole
    • (d) Alliteration
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 19. Fill in the blank with the correct collocation. A gaggle of journalists sit in a/an _________ foyer waiting impatiently.

    • (a) attic
    • (b) hotel
    • (c) ranch
    • (d) croft
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  19. 20. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. Although Edward had noble blood, his ignoble qualities made him incapable of taking over the kingdom.

    • (a) Salient
    • (b) Strange
    • (c) Ostentatious
    • (d) Unworthy
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. PassageFor questions 21–25

    In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

    At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions (1) _________. The (2) _________ occurs due to poor quality packaging material or (3) _________ storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in (4) __________, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one (5) ________, lousy and dull.

  21. 21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

    • (a) prevail
    • (b) sustain
    • (c) entail
    • (d) assail
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 22. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

    • (a) contamination
    • (b) perfection
    • (c) purification
    • (d) concentration
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 23. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

    • (a) sterile
    • (b) unhygienic
    • (c) neat
    • (d) energetic
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

    • (a) condition
    • (b) proportion
    • (c) nutrition
    • (d) production
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  25. 25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

    • (a) smart
    • (b) skinny
    • (c) obese
    • (d) affluent
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(d)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(c)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(c)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(b)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(b)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(b)
Q 25
(b)

General Awareness

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(b)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(b)
Q 16
(a)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(a)
Q 19
(d)
Q 20
(c)
Q 21
(b)
Q 22
(d)
Q 23
(d)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(d)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(a)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(b)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(d)
Q 11
(a)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(c)
Q 15
(b)
Q 16
(b)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(b)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(c)
Q 22
(d)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(b)
Q 25
(d)

English Comprehension

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(b)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(a)
Q 7
(d)
Q 8
(c)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(c)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(b)
Q 20
(d)
Q 21
(a)
Q 22
(a)
Q 23
(b)
Q 24
(c)
Q 25
(c)