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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2017 Tier I — 21 August 2017, Shift 3 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2017-tier-1-21-aug-shift-3/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2017 Tier I — 21 August 2017, Shift 3

21 August 2017 · 4:15 PM–5:15 PM90 of the paper’s 99 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

9 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 21 August 2017, 4:15 PM–5:15 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Select the related word from the given alternatives. Cow : Milk :: Bees : ?

    • (a) Silk
    • (b) Honey
    • (c) Flower
    • (d) Water
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 2. Select the related letters from the given alternatives. ACF : GIL :: OQT : ?

    • (a) VXY
    • (b) UWZ
    • (c) RSV
    • (d) VXZ
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 3. Select the related number from the given alternatives. 64 : 8 :: 0.01 : ?

    • (a) 0.1
    • (b) 1
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 0.08
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

    • (a) Stream
    • (b) Rivulet
    • (c) River
    • (d) Valley
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

    • (a) ADG
    • (b) HKN
    • (c) ORU
    • (d) BDF
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

    • (a) 49
    • (b) 25
    • (c) 8
    • (d) 36
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 7. A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. upset, aurora, spurn, strut, status, ?

    • (a) treasure
    • (b) perfect
    • (c) right
    • (d) unique
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 8. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. L, N, Q, S, V, ?

    • (a) W
    • (b) Y
    • (c) Z
    • (d) X
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 111, 107.5, 104, ? , 97, 93.5

    • (a) 100
    • (b) 99.5
    • (c) 100.5
    • (d) 99
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. Advik's birthday is on Monday 19th June. On what day of the week will be Nishith's Birthday in the same year if Nishith was born on 17th November?

    • (a) Saturday
    • (b) Wednesday
    • (c) Friday
    • (d) Sunday
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 11. The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 30, 40 and 60 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

    • (a) 200
    • (b) 220
    • (c) 180
    • (d) 130
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 12. From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. JAUNTILY

    • (a) NEATLY
    • (b) AUNTY
    • (c) JAUNT
    • (d) UNITY
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 13. If UNCOVER is coded as FMXLEVI, then how will TIP be coded as? ENROLL NOW READ THEIR STORIES !

    • (a) LTV
    • (b) NQV
    • (c) KHQ
    • (d) GRK
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. In a certain code language, '+' represents 'x', '-' represents '+', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question? 50 + 5 - 700 x 28 = ?

    • (a) 94
    • (b) 100
    • (c) 90
    • (d) 275
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 15. If 3 % 2 = 50, 2 % 4 = 60 then what is the value of 5 % 4 = ?

    • (a) 16
    • (b) 9
    • (c) 90
    • (d) 20
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 17. A paper boy cycles 10 km East, then turns South and cycles 3 km, then turns West and cycles 6 km, then turns to his right and cycles 3 km. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

    • (a) 4 km West
    • (b) 14 km East
    • (c) 4 km East
    • (d) 14 km West
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 18. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement 1 : All flowers are leaves. Statement 2 : Some flowers are plants. Conclusion I : Some leaves are plants. Conclusion II : Some plants are flowers.

    • (a) Only conclusion I follows
    • (b) Only conclusion II follows
    • (c) Both I and II follow
    • (d) Neither I nor II follows
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

General Awareness

  1. 26. The average variable cost curve is ____ shaped.

    • (a) U
    • (b) V
    • (c) X
    • (d) W
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 27. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.

    • (a) Union
    • (b) State
    • (c) Global
    • (d) Concurrent
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 28. There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Odisha.

    • (a) 11
    • (b) 19
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 29. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to ______________ to organise a satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers.

    • (a) Madras
    • (b) Bombay
    • (c) Surat
    • (d) Ahmedabad
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 30. Murshid Quli Khan, Alivardi Khan and Sirajuddaullah were all nawabs of ___________?

    • (a) Lucknow
    • (b) Varanasi
    • (c) Hyderabad
    • (d) Bengal
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 31. _________ affect the rate of humus formation of soil.

    • (a) Flora & Fauna
    • (b) Time
    • (c) Temperature
    • (d) Parent rock
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 32. The latitudes of main land of India extends between __________.

    • (a) 8°4' N and 37°6' N
    • (b) 8°4' W and 37°6' W
    • (c) 8°4' E and 37°6' E
    • (d) 8°4' S and 37°6' S
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 33. ___________ is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 55 per cent of the blood.

    • (a) Plasma
    • (b) Formed Elements
    • (c) Blood Groups
    • (d) Coagulation of Blood
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 34. Sexual reproduction in Algae that takes place through fusion of two similar size gametes is called?

    • (a) Zoospores
    • (b) Anisogamous
    • (c) Isogamous
    • (d) Oogamous
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 35. Animals in which the cells are arranged in three embryonic layers are called ________.

    • (a) Diploblastic
    • (b) Ectoderm
    • (c) Tripoblastic
    • (d) Endoderm
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 36. An image formed by a concave mirror on a screen is called __________?

    • (a) Virtual image
    • (b) Real image
    • (c) Inverted image
    • (d) Erect image
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 38. _____________ is a collection of data values of same types having a common name.

    • (a) Object
    • (b) String
    • (c) Array
    • (d) Numbers
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 39. A __________ thread is actually stronger than a steel wire.

    • (a) wool
    • (b) cotton
    • (c) jute
    • (d) nylon
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 40. The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called ___________.

    • (a) Electroplating
    • (b) Galvanisation
    • (c) Rusting
    • (d) Crystallisation
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 41. __________ refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.

    • (a) Natality
    • (b) Mortality
    • (c) Immigration
    • (d) Emigration
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 42. ___________ is a welfare scheme started by the Prime Minister in order to provide LPG connections to domestic households that fall under the below the poverty line category.

    • (a) Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan
    • (b) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
    • (c) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana
    • (d) Vidyanjali Yojana
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 43. Who invented the waterproof raincoat?

    • (a) Robert Hooke
    • (b) Cai Lun
    • (c) Charles Macintosh
    • (d) William Harvey
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 44. In which sport did India win Silver medal at Rio Olympics 2016?

    • (a) Badminton
    • (b) Boxing
    • (c) Hockey
    • (d) Wrestling
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 45. Who was the architect of Taj Mahal?

    • (a) Ustad Ahmad Lahouri
    • (b) Norman Foster
    • (c) Henry Irwin
    • (d) Ustad Ghani Utbuddin
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 46. The Nobel Prize in Literature 2016 was awarded to?

    • (a) Frank Sinatra
    • (b) Elvis Presley
    • (c) Bob Dylan
    • (d) Jimi Hendrix
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 47. Which of the statements given below are not correct? 1. The author of 'India 2020: A Vision for the New Millennium' is Shashi Tharoor. 2. The author of 'The Great Indian Novel' is A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. 3. The author of 'My Country My Life' is I.K Gujral.

    • (a) 1 and 2
    • (b) 2 and 3
    • (c) 1 and 3
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  22. 48. In April 2016, amid rising tension over North Korea, which country launched its first domestically built aircraft carrier?

    • (a) South Korea
    • (b) Japan
    • (c) China
    • (d) USA
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 49. Which National Park in Nepal is a continuation of India's Valmiki National Park?

    • (a) Chitwan National Park
    • (b) Bandipur National Park
    • (c) Dudhwa National Park
    • (d) Jim Corbett National Park
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 50. What is the remainder when 2468 is divided by 37?

    • (a) 26
    • (b) 36
    • (c) 18
    • (d) 14
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 51. A can do 75% of a job in 9 days and B can do half of the job in 8 days. If they work on it together, then in how many days can they do half of the job?

    • (a) 40/7
    • (b) 24/7
    • (c) 7/2
    • (d) 9/2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 52. Area of 4 walls of a cuboid 400 sq cm, its length is 15 cm and height is 8 cm. What is its breadth (in cm)?

    • (a) 12
    • (b) 20
    • (c) 24
    • (d) 10
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 53. At 20% discount the selling price of an article is Rs 2400, what is the selling price (in Rs) if the discount is 32.5%?

    • (a) 2125
    • (b) 2225
    • (c) 2025
    • (d) 2325
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 54. What is the fourth proportional to 24, 120 and 22?

    • (a) 110
    • (b) 120
    • (c) 100
    • (d) 90
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 55. What is the average of all numbers between 8 and 74 which are divisible by 7?

    • (a) 40
    • (b) 41
    • (c) 42
    • (d) 43
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 56. A trader had 1200 kgs of rice. He sold a part of it at 5% profit and the rest at 11% profit, so that he made a total profit of 7%. How much (in kg) wheat did he sell at 5% profit?

    • (a) 900
    • (b) 600
    • (c) 400
    • (d) 800
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 57. 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as _________ of a.

    • (a) 8%
    • (b) 40%
    • (c) 4%
    • (d) 80%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 58. After excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 60 kmph and after including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

    • (a) 10
    • (b) 9
    • (c) 12
    • (d) 15
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 59. The simple and compound interest that can be earned in two years at the same rate is Rs 1,000 and Rs 1,040 respectively. What is the rate (percent per annum) of interest?

    • (a) 9
    • (b) 10
    • (c) 8
    • (d) 11
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 60. If 5/2 - (6/5)(x - 15/2) = -x/5, then what is the value of x?

    • (a) -23/2
    • (b) 13/2
    • (c) -13/2
    • (d) 23/2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 61. If a - b = 2 and ab = 24, then what is the value of a3 - b3?

    • (a) 280
    • (b) 124
    • (c) 140
    • (d) 152
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 62. Sum of twice a fraction and its reciprocal is 17/6. What is the fraction?

    • (a) 4/3
    • (b) 5/4
    • (c) 3/4
    • (d) 4/5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 63. The 3rd and 7th term of an arithmetic progression are -9 and 11 respectively. What is the 15th term?

    • (a) 28
    • (b) 87
    • (c) 51
    • (d) 17
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 64. What is the reflection of the point (4, 7) in the line y = -1?

    • (a) (-6 , 7)
    • (b) (-4 , -9)
    • (c) (4 , -9)
    • (d) (-6 , -7)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  15. 65. What are the co-ordinates of the centroid of a triangle, whose vertices are A(2 , 5), B(-4 , 0) and C(5 , 4)?

    • (a) (-1 , 3)
    • (b) (1 , 3)
    • (c) (1 , -3)
    • (d) (-1 , -3)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 66. Slope of the line AB is -2/3. Co-ordinates of points A and B are (x , -3) and (5 , 2) respectively. What is the value of x?

    • (a) 4
    • (b) -14
    • (c) 12.5
    • (d) -4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 67. D and E are points on side AB and AC of ΔABC. DE is parallel to BC. If AD:DB = 2:3, what is the ratio of area of ΔADE and area of quadrilateral BDEC?

    • (a) 4 : 21
    • (b) 4 : 25
    • (c) 4 : 29
    • (d) 4 : 9
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 68. What is the value of Cot 60o - Cos 45o?

    • (a) (9 - 2√3)/9
    • (b) (2√6 - 1)/√3
    • (c) (1 - 2√3)/2
    • (d) (√2 - √3)/√6
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 69. Δ PQR is right angled at Q. If m∠R = 60°, what is the length of PR (in cm), if RQ = 4√3 cm?

    • (a) 8
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 8/√3
    • (d) 8√3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. 70. If Tan θ = 9/40, then Sec θ = ?

    • (a) 40/41
    • (b) 9/41
    • (c) 41/40
    • (d) 41/9
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 71. Which taxi company has more taxis than A but less than D?

    • (a) B
    • (b) C
    • (c) F
    • (d) E
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 72. If 30 taxis quit company B and joined company D then D will have how many more taxis than C?

    • (a) 40
    • (b) 30
    • (c) 110
    • (d) 70
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  23. 73. Even if A and C decide to merge, still D will have how many more taxis (in %) than the merged A and C entity?

    • (a) 15
    • (b) 20
    • (c) 10
    • (d) 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  24. 74. If each taxi on an average runs 100 kms every day and if fuel cost is Rs 3 per km, then all these taxis spend how much (in Rs.) on fuel every day?

    • (a) 128000
    • (b) 108000
    • (c) 118000
    • (d) 98000
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 75. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. I took the shortest (1)/ way through the (2)/ little park close the palace. (3)/No Error (4)

    • (a) 1
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

English Comprehension

  1. 76. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. As it came to a stop (1)/ the conductor called (2)/ overin a loud voice. (3)/No Error (4)

    • (a) 1
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 77. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Moving to the city was eye-__________ for the straitlaced country girl.

    • (a) clearing
    • (b) freeing
    • (c) saving
    • (d) opening
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 78. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. With a blood test, a physician was able to ___________ the woman's pregnancy.

    • (a) term
    • (b) confirm
    • (c) firm
    • (d) confer
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 79. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Exemption

    • (a) Immunity
    • (b) Accountability
    • (c) Liability
    • (d) Responsibility
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 80. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Perverse

    • (a) Agreeable
    • (b) Nefarious
    • (c) Compliant
    • (d) Willing
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 81. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. To maneuver

    • (a) To manipulate
    • (b) To proceed
    • (c) To cease
    • (d) To machinate
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 82. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. To avert

    • (a) To aid
    • (b) To deter
    • (c) To forestall
    • (d) To preclude
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 83. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. To go to somebody's head

    • (a) To have a huge ego
    • (b) To complain to the highest authority
    • (c) To make someone dizzy or slightly drunk
    • (d) To arrive at the central point of the topic
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 84. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. To make amends

    • (a) To make new friends
    • (b) To feel guilty for something you have not done
    • (c) To compensate
    • (d) To make flimsy excuses
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 85. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". Why should we (bothered)?

    • (a) bother
    • (b) bothering
    • (c) to bother
    • (d) no improvement
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 86. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". I absolutely must (seen) him, however painful it may be for me.

    • (a) saw
    • (b) seeing
    • (c) see
    • (d) no improvement
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 87. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. To move back and forth or sideways

    • (a) Sojourn
    • (b) Tarriance
    • (c) Traverse
    • (d) Breather
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 88. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. The remains of something that has been badly damaged

    • (a) Pristine
    • (b) Immaculate
    • (c) Wreckage
    • (d) Sterile
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 89. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

    • (a) Mutiniers
    • (b) Muteneers
    • (c) Muteniers
    • (d) Mutineers
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 90. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

    • (a) Obeisance
    • (b) Obeisanse
    • (c) Obesance
    • (d) Obesanse
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 91. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Our only enemies were X-heat, thirst, and flies, but far Y-from man or beast than that awful trinity Z-rather would I have faced any danger

    • (a) XYZ
    • (b) ZYX
    • (c) XZY
    • (d) ZXY
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 92. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Thus, I stand on a X-hill and watch a labourer Y-upon the distant railway Z-striking with his sledge

    • (a) XYZ
    • (b) XZY
    • (c) ZYX
    • (d) ZXY
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 93. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. The painter painted the entire bungalow.

    • (a) The entire bungalow is painted by the painter.
    • (b) Painting of the entire bungalow was done by the painter.
    • (c) The entire bungalow was painted by the painter.
    • (d) Painting of the entire bungalow is done by the painter.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 94. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. The teacher said, "Nobody can solve the problem."

    • (a) The teacher said that nobody can solve the problem.
    • (b) The teacher said that nobody should solve the problem.
    • (c) The teacher said that somebody can solve the problem.
    • (d) The teacher said that nobody could solve the problem.
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. PassageFor questions 95–99

    A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. Manja, or the glass-coated string used for flying kites, not only poses threat to humans, animals and birds but also to trees. A study by the country's oldest botanical garden has revealed that it poses a great threat to trees. But how can a snapped string struck in a tree kill the tree? Apparently, it does so by allying with the creepers in the garden. A research paper by three scientists of the Acharya Jagdish Chandra Bose Indian Botanic Garden, located in West Bengal's Howrah district, illustrates in detail how the manja, in collusion with climbers, does the damage. "The abandoned, torn kite strings act as an excellent primary supporting platform for the tender climbers, giving easy passage to reach the top of the trees. Lateral branches from the top of the climber and other accessory branches from the ground reaches the top taking support of the first climber, completely covers the treetop, thus inhibiting the penetration of sunlight," says the research paper.

  21. 95. Abandoned, torn kite strings stuck in trees benefits whom?

    • (a) Humans
    • (b) Creepers
    • (c) Birds
    • (d) Trees
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 96. How many scientists contributed to a study by country's oldest botanical gardens on how manja can kill a tree?

    • (a) Two
    • (b) Three
    • (c) Five
    • (d) Four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  23. 97. How can a tree be killed by a creeper?

    • (a) By blocking its access to sunlight
    • (b) By wrapping its tentacles around its branches
    • (c) By sucking away the nutrients
    • (d) By secreting toxic chemicals
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 98. What would be the acronym for India's oldest botanical garden?

    • (a) AJCBIBG
    • (b) AJCBBGI
    • (c) AJBCIBG
    • (d) AJBCBGI
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  25. 99. What gives easy passage to 'climbers' to top of the trees?

    • (a) Creepers
    • (b) Torn kites
    • (c) Lateral branches
    • (d) Manja
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(b)
Q 2
(b)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(a)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(a)
Q 12
(a)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(d)
Q 15
(c)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(c)

General Awareness

Q 26
(a)
Q 27
(a)
Q 28
(c)
Q 29
(d)
Q 30
(d)
Q 31
(a)
Q 32
(a)
Q 33
(a)
Q 34
(c)
Q 35
(c)
Q 36
(b)
Q 38
(c)
Q 39
(d)
Q 40
(a)
Q 41
(a)
Q 42
(b)
Q 43
(c)
Q 44
(a)
Q 45
(a)
Q 46
(c)
Q 47
(d)
Q 48
(c)
Q 49
(a)
Q 50
(a)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 51
(b)
Q 52
(d)
Q 53
(c)
Q 54
(a)
Q 55
(c)
Q 56
(d)
Q 57
(c)
Q 58
(d)
Q 59
(c)
Q 60
(d)
Q 61
(d)
Q 62
(c)
Q 63
(c)
Q 64
(c)
Q 65
(b)
Q 66
(c)
Q 67
(a)
Q 68
(d)
Q 69
(d)
Q 70
(c)
Q 71
(b)
Q 72
(d)
Q 73
(d)
Q 74
(b)
Q 75
(c)

English Comprehension

Q 76
(c)
Q 77
(d)
Q 78
(b)
Q 79
(a)
Q 80
(b)
Q 81
(c)
Q 82
(a)
Q 83
(c)
Q 84
(c)
Q 85
(a)
Q 86
(c)
Q 87
(c)
Q 88
(c)
Q 89
(d)
Q 90
(a)
Q 91
(c)
Q 92
(b)
Q 93
(c)
Q 94
(d)
Q 95
(b)
Q 96
(b)
Q 97
(a)
Q 98
(a)
Q 99
(d)