Verified against official sourcesLast updated

ExamBharo

Type to search · Esc to close

ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2017 Tier I — 17 August 2017, Shift 1 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2017-tier-1-17-aug-shift-1/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2017 Tier I — 17 August 2017, Shift 1

17 August 2017 · 10:00 AM–11:00 AM90 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

10 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 17 August 2017, 10:00 AM–11:00 AM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Select the related word from the given alternatives. Father : Parent :: Sister : ?

    • (a) Other
    • (b) Brother
    • (c) Daughter
    • (d) Sibling
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 2. Select the related letters from the given alternatives. WTQ : DGJ :: NKH : ?

    • (a) MPS
    • (b) LOR
    • (c) NQT
    • (d) ORV
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 3. Select the related number from the given alternatives. 60 : 15 :: 100 : ?

    • (a) 45
    • (b) 35
    • (c) 5
    • (d) 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 4. Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

    • (a) Chair
    • (b) Sofa
    • (c) Couch
    • (d) Television
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

    • (a) XVT
    • (b) NPR
    • (c) LJH
    • (d) FDB
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 6. Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

    • (a) 1
    • (b) -2
    • (c) -(-3)
    • (d) 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 7. A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. bat, thin, reply, length, ?

    • (a) terror
    • (b) display
    • (c) dome
    • (d) scolding
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 9. A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 1, 0.125, 1/27, 1/64, ? , 1/216

    • (a) 0.025
    • (b) 1/8
    • (c) 1/128
    • (d) 0.008
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 10. Hansh's birthday is on Monday 5th June. On what day of the week will be Tushar's Birthday in the same year if Tushar was born on 11th December?

    • (a) Sunday
    • (b) Wednesday
    • (c) Monday
    • (d) Tuesday
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 11. The weights of 4 boxes are 40, 30, 50 and 20 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight,in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

    • (a) 140
    • (b) 130
    • (c) 90
    • (d) 100
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 12. From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. TOKENISM

    • (a) NAMES
    • (b) EMITS
    • (c) STONE
    • (d) NOISE
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 13. If SQUALOR is coded as USWCNQT, then how will WHY be coded as?

    • (a) CZR
    • (b) SGY
    • (c) YJA
    • (d) YPT
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 14. In a certain code language, '+' represents 'x', '-' represents '+', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question? 9 + 3 - 72 x 6 ÷ 3 = ?

    • (a) 46
    • (b) 21
    • (c) 9
    • (d) 36
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 15. If 19#13=3; 25#3=11; 36#10=13; then what is the value of 7#3=?

    • (a) 21
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 26
    • (d) 39
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 17. A and B start running from the same point. A runs 3 km West, then turns South and runs 5 km, then turns to her right and runs 7 km. B runs 1 km South then turns to her right and runs 10 km. Where is B with respect to A now?

    • (a) 4 km South
    • (b) 4 km North
    • (c) 6 km North
    • (d) 6 km South
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 18. In the question a statement is given, followed by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given arguments, if any, is a strong argument. Statement : Should speed breakers be banned? Argument I : Yes, data shows that number of accidents increase after putting the speed breakers. Argument II : No, it teaches fast drivers a lesson.

    • (a) if only argument I is strong.
    • (b) if only argument II is strong.
    • (c) if both I and II are strong.
    • (d) if neither I nor II is strong.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

General Awareness

  1. 26. In a centrally planned economy, the ____________ plans all the important activities in the economy.

    • (a) Industrialists
    • (b) Citizens
    • (c) Government
    • (d) Judiciary
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 27. __________ says that if we keep increasing the employment of an input, with other inputs fixed, eventually a point will be reached after which the resulting addition to output (i.e., marginal product of that input) will start falling.

    • (a) Law of diminishing marginal product
    • (b) Law of variable proportions
    • (c) The Short Run
    • (d) The Long Run
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 28. ______________ means that the Supreme Court will reconsider the case and the legal issues involved in it.

    • (a) Original Jurisdiction
    • (b) Writ Jurisdiction
    • (c) Appellate Jurisdiction
    • (d) Advisory Jurisdiction
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 29. Which amendment of the Constitution of India increased the age of retirement of High Court judges from 60 to 62 years?

    • (a) 10th
    • (b) 12th
    • (c) 15th
    • (d) 245th
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 30. During their rule the British persuaded or forced cultivators in Madras to grow __________.

    • (a) Jute
    • (b) Tea
    • (c) Sugarcane
    • (d) Rice
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 31. The queen with the title Didda ruled over which part of India between 980 - 1003?

    • (a) Avadh
    • (b) Kashmir
    • (c) Sindh
    • (d) Bengal
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 32. In the north-west, India shares its land boundaries with which country?

    • (a) Sri Lanka
    • (b) Myanmar
    • (c) Bangladesh
    • (d) Pakistan
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 33. The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers is known as ____________.

    • (a) Punjab Himalaya
    • (b) Nepal Himalayas
    • (c) Kumaon Himalayas
    • (d) Assam Himalayas
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 34. Potato, tomato and brinjal are three different species but all belong to which genus?

    • (a) Solanum
    • (b) Panthera
    • (c) Felis
    • (d) Tigris
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 35. The first formed primary xylem elements are called ___________.

    • (a) Metaxylem
    • (b) Protoxylem
    • (c) Xylem fibres
    • (d) Xylem parenchyma
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 36. Nereis, Pheretima (Earthworm) and Hirudinaria (blood sucking leech) are examples of which Phylum?

    • (a) Coelenterata
    • (b) Aschelminthes
    • (c) Annelida
    • (d) Arthropoda
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 37. In humans, the sound is produced by the ________.

    • (a) oesophagus
    • (b) larynx
    • (c) medulla
    • (d) epiglottis
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 38. The vocal cords in men are about _______ long.

    • (a) 10mm
    • (b) 20mm
    • (c) 30mm
    • (d) 40mm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 39. The __________ uses an addressing scheme known as URL to indicate the location of files on the web.

    • (a) JavaScript
    • (b) World Wide Web
    • (c) SQL
    • (d) String
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 40. Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of acids, bases and ______.

    • (a) Copper
    • (b) Aluminium
    • (c) Salts
    • (d) Iron
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 41. Which base is present in milk of magnesia?

    • (a) Magnesium hydroxide
    • (b) Ammonium hydroxide
    • (c) Sodium hydroxide
    • (d) Calcium hydroxide
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  17. 42. ___________ is the process of restoring a forest that once existed but was removed at some point of time in the past.

    • (a) Deforestation
    • (b) Reforestation
    • (c) Greenhouse
    • (d) Jhum cultivation
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 43. ______________ scheme launched by the Central Government to eliminate open defecation by constructing toilets for households, communities.

    • (a) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    • (b) Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan
    • (c) Stand up India scheme
    • (d) National RU URBAN Mission
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 44. Who discovered Sodium?

    • (a) Humphry Davy
    • (b) William Henry Fox
    • (c) J.J.Thomson
    • (d) Karl Benz
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 45. Who was the 2016 Men's Kabaddi World Cup Runner-Up?

    • (a) Thailand
    • (b) Iran
    • (c) Argentina
    • (d) Pakistan
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 46. Jama Masjid of Delhi was built in which century?

    • (a) 15th
    • (b) 16th
    • (c) 17th
    • (d) 18th
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 47. Which of the following won The Man Booker Prize 2016?

    • (a) The Sellout
    • (b) A Brief History of Seven Killings
    • (c) The Narrow Road to the Deep North
    • (d) The Luminaries
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 48. Which of the statements given below are correct? 1. The author of the novel 'Gilead' is Don Winslow. 2. The author of the novel 'Wolf Hall' is Stephen Dobyns. 3. The author of the novel 'To Kill a Mockingbird' is Harper Lee.

    • (a) 1 and 2
    • (b) 2 and 3
    • (c) 1 and 3
    • (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 49. What was United Kingdom's rank in 2016 Human Development Index published by the United Nations Development Programme?

    • (a) 4
    • (b) 16
    • (c) 64
    • (d) 256
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 50. Which railway station is used for immigration and customs of passengers who travel on the Thar Express between Pakistan and India?

    • (a) Jalal Marri
    • (b) Zero Point
    • (c) Lal Pir
    • (d) Gujar Garhi
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 51. Select the correct option: Convert binary 1101111 to decimal.

    • (a) 111
    • (b) 101
    • (c) 110
    • (d) 100
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 52. A can finish a work in 18 days and B in 36 days. If they work on it together for 9 days, then what percent of work is left?

    • (a) 33.3
    • (b) 20
    • (c) 75
    • (d) 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 53. The diagonal of a square is 12 cm what is the length (in cm) of its side?

    • (a) 6√2
    • (b) 12√2
    • (c) 6
    • (d) 9
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 54. If on a Sale there is 30% discount on the marked price of Rs 2500, but the sale is done at Rs 1400 only. What additional discount (in %) did the customer get?

    • (a) 10
    • (b) 20
    • (c) 15
    • (d) 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 55. What is the third proportional to 10 and 25?

    • (a) 125
    • (b) 150
    • (c) 62.5
    • (d) 225
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 56. In a class of 50 students there are 27 boys. The average weight of these boys is 72 Kg and average weight of the full class is 55.44 kgs. What is the average weight (in kgs) of the girls of the class?

    • (a) 42
    • (b) 48
    • (c) 30
    • (d) 36
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 57. If a saree is sold for Rs 1900 the seller will face 5% loss, at what price (in Rs) should he sell the saree to gain 15% profit?

    • (a) 2200
    • (b) 2400
    • (c) 2500
    • (d) 2300
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 58. Pranita got 30 marks more in Math than what she got in Science. Her Math marks are 60% of the sum of her Math and Science marks. What are her Science marks?

    • (a) 90
    • (b) 150
    • (c) 120
    • (d) 60
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 59. To travel 432 km, an Express train takes 1 hour more than Duronto. If however, the speed of the Express train is increased by 50%, it takes 2 hours less than Duronto. What is the speed (in km/hr) of Duronto train?

    • (a) 60
    • (b) 54
    • (c) 48
    • (d) 72
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 60. What is the difference (in Rs) between the compound interests on Rs. 4000 for 1 year at 12% per annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?

    • (a) 14.4
    • (b) 12.4
    • (c) 10.4
    • (d) 16.4
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 61. If 7x - [3(2x - 3)]/2 = 1/2, then what is the value of x?

    • (a) -1
    • (b) 1
    • (c) 3
    • (d) -3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 62. If a + b = 4 and ab = 3, then what is the value of a3 + b3?

    • (a) 21
    • (b) 17
    • (c) 28
    • (d) 31
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 63. The sum of a fraction and 7 times its reciprocal is 11/2. What is the fraction?

    • (a) 7/2
    • (b) 2/7
    • (c) 3/4
    • (d) 4/3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 64. The 3rd and 9th term of an arithmetic progression are -8 and 10 respectively. What is the 16th term?

    • (a) 34
    • (b) 28
    • (c) 25
    • (d) 31
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 65. What is the reflection of the point (1 , 2) in the line y = 3?

    • (a) (1, -4)
    • (b) (1, 4)
    • (c) (-1, -4)
    • (d) (-1, 4)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 66. Point A (2, 1) divides segment BC in the ratio 2:3. Co-ordinates of B are (1, -3) and C are (4, y). What is the value of y?

    • (a) 8
    • (b) -7
    • (c) -8
    • (d) 7
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 67. At what point does the line 2x + 5y = -6 cuts the X-axis?

    • (a) (3, 0)
    • (b) (0, 3)
    • (c) (-3, 0)
    • (d) (0, -3)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 68. ΔABC is right angled at B. BD is an altitude. AD = 9 cm and DC = 16 cm. What is the value of BD (in cm)?

    • (a) 6
    • (b) 18
    • (c) 21
    • (d) 12
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 69. What is the value of Tan 45° + 4/√3 Sec 60°?

    • (a) (√3 + 8)/√3
    • (b) (√3 + 8)/3
    • (c) (√3 - 8)/√3
    • (d) (√3 - 8)/3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 70. Δ DEF is right angled at E. If m ∠D = 30°. What is the length (in cm) of DE, if EF = 2√3 cm?

    • (a) 3
    • (b) 4
    • (c) 6
    • (d) 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 71. If Sin θ = 20/29, then what is the value of Cos θ?

    • (a) 29/21
    • (b) 21/29
    • (c) 21/20
    • (d) 20/29
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  22. 72. The company reported a loss in which year?

    • (a) 2013
    • (b) 2016
    • (c) 2012
    • (d) 2014
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 73. What is the cumulative profits (in lakh Rs) earned by the company in the given six years?

    • (a) 80
    • (b) 70
    • (c) 90
    • (d) 100
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  24. 74. By what value profit in 2012 was more (in %) than the profit of 2011?

    • (a) 10
    • (b) 33.33
    • (c) 50
    • (d) 40
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  25. 75. If the profits are added to the company's reserves and the reserves stood at Rs 150 lakhs at the end of 2015, what were the reserves (in Rs. lakhs) in the beginning of 2012?

    • (a) 130
    • (b) 90
    • (c) 110
    • (d) 40
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

English Comprehension

  1. 76. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. The view of the downstream (1)/ and directly down the (2)/ bridge was awesome. (3)/No Error (4)

    • (a) 1
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 77. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. His name was hardly (1)/ known out (2)/ his own country. (3)/No Error (4)

    • (a) 1
    • (b) 2
    • (c) 3
    • (d) 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 78. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The fun ____________ reduced significantly when mom decided to tag along.

    • (a) mark
    • (b) sign
    • (c) quotient
    • (d) moment
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 79. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The shepherd guarded a large ________ of sheep and allowed them to move from pasture to pasture.

    • (a) block
    • (b) culture
    • (c) shoal
    • (d) flock
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 80. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Facsimile

    • (a) Disparate
    • (b) Replica
    • (c) Peculiar
    • (d) Contrast
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 81. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Chauvinism

    • (a) Neutral
    • (b) Aloof
    • (c) Zealotry
    • (d) Evenhanded
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 82. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Melody

    • (a) Chant
    • (b) Lyric
    • (c) Cacophony
    • (d) Inflection
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 83. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Diffident

    • (a) Bashful
    • (b) Demure
    • (c) Aggressive
    • (d) Meek
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 84. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. To have a finger in every pie

    • (a) To Fight with everybody
    • (b) To be involved in a large and varied number of activities or enterprises
    • (c) To make fun of everybody
    • (d) To leave every job unfinished
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 85. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. To make up one's mind

    • (a) To be prepared for unfavourable outcomes
    • (b) To make a decision; decide
    • (c) To overcome intense grief
    • (d) To psyche oneself into believing that the task at hand is not impossible
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 86. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". We might (have doing) something to help you.

    • (a) having to do
    • (b) has done
    • (c) have done
    • (d) no improvement
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 87. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". He (to be) positively rude.

    • (a) was being
    • (b) were being
    • (c) being
    • (d) no improvement
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 88. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Distorted representation of something

    • (a) Travesty
    • (b) Solemnity
    • (c) Seriousness
    • (d) Gravity
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 89. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. A feeling of intense longing for something

    • (a) Yearning
    • (b) Apathy
    • (c) Satiety
    • (d) Gratification
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 90. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

    • (a) Perverted
    • (b) Pervirted
    • (c) Parverted
    • (d) Parvirted
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 91. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

    • (a) Blandnes
    • (b) Blandeness
    • (c) Blandenes
    • (d) Blandness
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 92. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. The burning sun X-our very Y-seemed to be sucking Z-blood out of us

    • (a) XZY
    • (b) XYZ
    • (c) ZYX
    • (d) YXZ
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 93. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. I hear the sound X-his tool raised Y-of the blow while I see Z-above his head

    • (a) XZY
    • (b) XYZ
    • (c) YXZ
    • (d) ZYX
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 94. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. The tutor always answers the students' questions.

    • (a) The students' questions is always answered by the tutor.
    • (b) Questions answered by the tutor are by the students.
    • (c) The students' questions are always answered by the tutor.
    • (d) Questions answered by the tutor is by the students.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  20. 95. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. Mother said, "Will you tell me what it means, Pritam?"

    • (a) Mother asked Pritam if he will tell her what it meant.
    • (b) Mother asked Pritam that he would tell her what it meant.
    • (c) Mother asked Pritam if he would tell her what it meant.
    • (d) Mother asked Pritam that he will tell her what it meant.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. PassageFor questions 96–99

    A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. Prebiotics are the lesser-known gut-health promoters which serve as food for good bacteria inside the gut. "We found that dietary prebiotics can improve non-REM (random eye movement) sleep, as well as REM sleep after a stressful event," said Robert Thompson, a PhD researcher at University of Colorado Boulder in the U.S. Prebiotics are dietary fibres found naturally in foods like artichokes, raw garlic, leeks and onions. When beneficial bacteria digest prebiotic fibre, they not only multiply, improving overall gut health, but they also release metabolic by-products. Researchers fed three-week-old male rats a diet of either standard chow or chow that included prebiotics. They then monitored the rats' body temperature, gut bacteria and sleepwake cycles — using electroencephalogram (EEG), or brain activity testing over time. Findings revealed that the rats on the prebiotic diet spent more time in nonrapid-eye-movement (NREM) sleep, which is restful and restorative, than those on the non-prebiotic diet.

  22. 96. What are prebiotics?

    • (a) Dietary fibres
    • (b) Bacteria
    • (c) Foods like artichokes
    • (d) Gut microbiota
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 97. What type of sleep is restorative?

    • (a) NREM
    • (b) REM
    • (c) EEG
    • (d) ECG
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 98. How are metabolic by-products released?

    • (a) When good bacteria help sleep
    • (b) When good bacteria digest dietary fibres
    • (c) When gut becomes rich in nutrients
    • (d) After recovery from stress due to sleep
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  25. 99. How can sleep wake cycles be monitored?

    • (a) By testing brain power
    • (b) By allowing REM and NREM sleep
    • (c) By using EEG
    • (d) By recording body temperature
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(d)
Q 2
(a)
Q 3
(d)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(b)
Q 6
(b)
Q 7
(b)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(a)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(d)
Q 15
(b)
Q 17
(b)
Q 18
(a)

General Awareness

Q 26
(c)
Q 27
(a)
Q 28
(c)
Q 29
(c)
Q 30
(d)
Q 31
(b)
Q 32
(d)
Q 33
(c)
Q 34
(a)
Q 35
(b)
Q 36
(c)
Q 37
(b)
Q 38
(b)
Q 39
(b)
Q 40
(c)
Q 41
(a)
Q 42
(b)
Q 43
(a)
Q 44
(a)
Q 45
(b)
Q 46
(c)
Q 47
(a)
Q 48
(a)
Q 49
(b)
Q 50
(b)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 51
(a)
Q 52
(d)
Q 53
(a)
Q 54
(b)
Q 55
(c)
Q 56
(d)
Q 57
(d)
Q 58
(d)
Q 59
(b)
Q 60
(a)
Q 61
(a)
Q 62
(c)
Q 63
(a)
Q 64
(d)
Q 65
(b)
Q 66
(d)
Q 67
(c)
Q 68
(d)
Q 69
(a)
Q 70
(c)
Q 71
(b)
Q 72
(a)
Q 73
(b)
Q 74
(c)
Q 75
(c)

English Comprehension

Q 76
(b)
Q 77
(b)
Q 78
(c)
Q 79
(d)
Q 80
(b)
Q 81
(c)
Q 82
(c)
Q 83
(c)
Q 84
(b)
Q 85
(b)
Q 86
(c)
Q 87
(a)
Q 88
(a)
Q 89
(a)
Q 90
(a)
Q 91
(d)
Q 92
(d)
Q 93
(c)
Q 94
(c)
Q 95
(c)
Q 96
(a)
Q 97
(a)
Q 98
(b)
Q 99
(c)