SSC CGL 2017 Tier I — 12 August 2017, Shift 3

1. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Book : Pages : : Continent : ?

• (a) Water
• (b) Forest
• (c) Countries
• (d) Land

2. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. JKLM : IIII : : PQRS : ?

• (a) PPPP
• (b) OOOO
• (c) TTTT
• (d) OOPP

3. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 4 : 17 : : 7 : ?

• (a) 49
• (b) 50
• (c) 51
• (d) 52

4. In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

• (a) Sad : Hopeful
• (b) Happy : Ecstatic
• (c) High : Giant
• (d) Trail : Pathway

5. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

• (a) FHJ
• (b) LNQ
• (c) JLN
• (d) NPR

6. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

• (a) 11 – 121
• (b) 13 – 169
• (c) 19 – 391
• (d) 21 – 441

7. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Feeble 2. From 3. Floor 4. Foam 5. Fluorescent

• (a) 13542
• (b) 15342
• (c) 13524
• (d) 15324

8. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. A, E, I, M, ?

• (a) P
• (b) Q
• (c) R
• (d) O

9. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, ?

• (a) 27
• (b) 28
• (c) 29
• (d) 31

10. Pointing towards a man, Ritika said "He is the son of my grandfather's only son". How is Ritika related to that man?

• (a) Aunty
• (b) Sister
• (c) Mother
• (d) Wife

11. Among four books, Book1 is twice as heavy as Book 2. Book 3's weight is half of Book 2's weight. Book 4 is 60 grams more as compared to Book 2 but 60 grams less as compared Book 1. Which book is heaviest?

• (a) Book 1
• (b) Book 2
• (c) Book 3
• (d) Book 4

12. In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Improvement

• (a) Rope
• (b) Trim
• (c) Important
• (d) Prove

13. In a certain code language, "MASTER" is written as "682145" and "STAMP" is written as "21869". How is "PASTE" written in that code language?

• (a) 82145
• (b) 98214
• (c) 69218
• (d) 95184

14. If "K" denotes "multiplied by", "M" denotes "subtracted from", "J" denotes "added to" and "L" denotes "divided by", then 44 M 24 K 56 L 14 J 60 = ?

• (a) 16
• (b) 72
• (c) 8
• (d) 140

15. If 27 (15) 33 and 41 (13) 53, then what is the value of 'A' in 26 (A) 35?

• (a) 16
• (b) 13
• (c) 14
• (d) 11

18. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: I. Some pens are pencils. II. Some pens are erasers. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are erasers. II. All erasers are pens.

• (a) Only conclusion (I) follows.
• (b) Only conclusion (II) follows.
• (c) Both conclusion follow.
• (d) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

26. Which of the following is called GDP Deflator?

• (a) Ratio of nominal to real GDP
• (b) Ratio of nominal to real GNP
• (c) Ratio of nominal to real CPI
• (d) Ratio of real to nominal GNP

27. Which organisation monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance?

• (a) State Bank of India
• (b) Reserve Bank of India
• (c) Grameen Bank of India
• (d) None of these

28. Which of the following Country doesn't have a written Constitution?

• (a) United Kingdom
• (b) Australia
• (c) United States of America
• (d) Bangladesh

29. In the Indian Parliamentary System, 'Vote on Account' is valid for how many months (except the year of elections)?

• (a) 2 months
• (b) 3 months
• (c) 6 months
• (d) 9 months

30. Takshashila University was located between which two rivers?

• (a) Indus and Jhelum
• (b) Jhelum and Ravi
• (c) Beas and Indus
• (d) Satluj and Indus

31. Who is the most prominent god of 'Rig Veda'?

• (a) Indra
• (b) Agni
• (c) Pashupati
• (d) Vishnu

32. Which Indian state has the largest share of the Wastelands in India?

• (a) Gujarat
• (b) Andhra Pradesh
• (c) Madhya Pradesh
• (d) Rajasthan

33. Which is the highest peak in Andaman and Nicobar islands?

• (a) Mount Koya
• (b) Mount Diavolo
• (c) Saddle Peak
• (d) Mount Thuiller

34. How does a Unicellular Organism reproduce?

• (a) Cell division
• (b) Cell reproduction
• (c) Cell synthesis
• (d) Fragmentation

35. What is the full form of DNA?

• (a) Diribo nucleic acid
• (b) Di nucleic acid
• (c) Dual nitrogen acid
• (d) Deoxyribonucleic acid

36. Which among the following is/are female hormones? (i) Estrogen (ii) Progesterone (iii) Testosterone

• (a) (i) and (iii)
• (b) (i) and (ii)
• (c) (ii) and (iii)
• (d) Only (iii)

37. For which of the following game, players must have the knowledge of Pascal's law?

• (a) Climbing
• (b) Paragliding
• (c) Rafting
• (d) Scuba diving

38. What is the value of the Least Distance of Distinct vision (in cm) for a normal human being?

• (a) 2.5
• (b) 25
• (c) 58
• (d) 60

39. What is the full form of ISDN?

• (a) International Service Digital network
• (b) Indian Service Digital Network
• (c) Integrated Service Digital Network
• (d) Internal Service Digital Network

40. Which among the following is used to treat Indigestion?

• (a) Antacid
• (b) Antiseptic
• (c) Analgesic
• (d) Antibiotic

41. Which of the following cannot be beaten into Sheets?

• (a) Gold
• (b) Silver
• (c) Potassium
• (d) Aluminum

42. Minamata disease is a nervous disorder caused by eating fish, polluted with _____ .

• (a) Iron
• (b) Mercury
• (c) Lead
• (d) Nickel

43. Mahila Police volunteer scheme to be implemented in all states of the country has been launched on pilot basis firstly in which state?

• (a) Delhi
• (b) Gujrat
• (c) Haryana
• (d) Rajasthan

44. Who invented the Centigrade scale?

• (a) Anders Celsius
• (b) Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit
• (c) William Thomson
• (d) Wright Brothers

46. Jallikattu practiced in Tamil Nadu is a part of which festival?

• (a) Onam
• (b) Pongal
• (c) Natuanjali
• (d) Hampi

47. Who among the following was NOT one of the recipients of Major Dhyan Chand Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2016?

• (a) Rajendra Pralhad Shelke
• (b) Sylvanus Dung Dung
• (c) Sathi Geetha
• (d) Amit Kumar

48. Who authored the book titled 'Jinnah often came to our House', which won the 2016 The Hindu Prize?

• (a) Kiran Doshi
• (b) Salman Rushdie
• (c) K. Vijay Kumar
• (d) Yasser Usman

49. With which country India has signed an agreement to renew the supply of Petroleum for a period of 5 years (i.e. till 2022)?

• (a) Nepal
• (b) U.A.E.
• (c) Iran
• (d) Bhutan

50. Which of the following neighbouring country of India is not a landlocked country?

• (a) Nepal
• (b) Myanmar
• (c) Bhutan
• (d) Afghanistan

51. How many numbers are there from 300 to 700 which are divisible by 2, 3 and 7?

• (a) 7
• (b) 8
• (c) 9
• (d) 10

52. A and B do (3/5)th part of a work and the rest of the work is completed by C. If A, B and C take the same work for Rs 5000, then what is the share of C (in Rs)?

• (a) 3000
• (b) 2500
• (c) 2000
• (d) 1500

53. A solid cone of height 36 cm and radius of base 9 cm is melted to form a solid cylinder of radius 9 cm and height 9 cm. What percent of material is wasted this process?

• (a) 25
• (b) 0
• (c) 5
• (d) 10

54. A dealer sells a machine having marked price as Rs 3840 at a discount of 20%. What is the selling price (in Rs) of the machine?

• (a) 3072
• (b) 3500
• (c) 4608
• (d) 3240

55. In what ratio tea at Rs 240/kg should be mixed with tea at Rs 280/kg so that on selling the mixture at Rs 324/kg there is a profit of 20%?

• (a) 1 : 1
• (b) 1 : 2
• (c) 1 : 3
• (d) 1 : 4

56. The average age of Ram and Rahim is 18 years. The average age of Rahim and Ramesh is 25 years. The average age of Ram and Ramesh is 29 years. What is the age (in years) of the eldest of the three?

• (a) 14
• (b) 22
• (c) 28
• (d) 36

58. In an examination 65% students pass in history and 55% students pass in hindi. If 5% students failed in both the subjects, then what is the percentage of students who have passed in both the subjects?

• (a) 15
• (b) 20
• (c) 25
• (d) 30

59. Diameter of wheel of a cycle is 21 cm. The cyclist takes 45 minutes to reach a destination at a speed of 16.5 km/hr. How many revolutions will the wheel make during the journey?

• (a) 12325
• (b) 18750
• (c) 21000
• (d) 24350

60. A person invested a total sum of Rs 7900 in three different schemes of simple interest at 3%, 5% and 8% per annum. At the end of one year he got same interest in all three schemes. What is the money (in Rs) invested at 3%?

• (a) 2900
• (b) 3500
• (c) 4000
• (d) 5600

61. If x + (1/x) = 2, then what is the value of x21 + (1/x1331)?

• (a) 0
• (b) 1
• (c) 2
• (d) 4

62. If x3 – y3 = 81 and x – y = 3, then what is the value of x2 + y2?

• (a) 18
• (b) 21
• (c) 27
• (d) 36

65. The side BC of ΔABC is produced to D. If ∠ACD = 114° and ∠ABC= (1/2)∠BAC, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠BAC?

• (a) 36
• (b) 48
• (c) 76
• (d) 84

66. O is the center of the circle and two tangents are drawn from a point P to this circle at points A and B. If ∠AOP = 50°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠APB?

• (a) 60
• (b) 80
• (c) 90
• (d) 100

67. In ΔPQR, PQ = PR = 18 cm, AB and AC are parallel to lines PR and PQ respectively. If A is the mid-point of QR, then what is the perimeter (in cm) of quadrilateral ABPC?

• (a) 18
• (b) 28
• (c) 32
• (d) 36

68. In ΔPQR, PS and PT are bisectors of ∠QPR and ∠QPS respectively. If ∠QPT = 30°, PT = 9 cm and TR = 15 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of ΔPTR ?

• (a) 36
• (b) 54
• (c) 72
• (d) 216

69. What is the simplified value of [2/(cot A – tan A)]?

• (a) sin A cos A
• (b) tan 2A
• (c) tan2 A
• (d) sin2 A cos2 A

71. What is the simplified value of (sec4 A – tan2 A) – (tan4 A + sec2 A)?

• (a) –1
• (b) –1/2
• (c) 0
• (d) 1

72. What is the percentage increase in number of mobile sold by Brand 2 from 2014 to 2015?

• (a) 8.33
• (b) 33.33
• (c) 37.5
• (d) 11.11

73. What is the percentage increase in the total number of mobiles sold by these four brands from 2014 to 2016?

• (a) 42.16
• (b) 38.63
• (c) 32.43
• (d) 30.16

74. In 2017 the sales of each brand increased by the same percentage as it did in the year 2016. What will be the approximate average sales (in units) of mobiles per brand in year 2017?

• (a) 9175
• (b) 8360
• (c) 9436
• (d) 9678

75. If for any year, the sales of a brand is more than average sales of these four brands in that year, then it gets a star. Which brand has the maximum stars?

• (a) Brand 3
• (b) Brand 3 and 4 both
• (c) Brand 4
• (d) All brands

76. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No error'. I was taken with surprise (1)/ when I saw (2)/ the beautiful Taj Mahal. (3)/ No Error (4)

• (a) 1
• (b) 2
• (c) 3
• (d) 4

77. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No error'. I finished my household chores (1)/ before he reached (2)/ to my place after so long. (3)/ No Error (4)

• (a) 1
• (b) 2
• (c) 3
• (d) 4

78. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Being a _____ doctor, he never shirks work.

• (a) conscious
• (b) conscience
• (c) conscientious
• (d) consensus

79. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The meeting was presided _____ by the Chairman.

• (a) over
• (b) upon
• (c) of
• (d) in

80. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Vacillate

• (a) Continue
• (b) Playful
• (c) Conclusive
• (d) Irresolute

81. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Indomitable

• (a) Unconquerable
• (b) Conflicting
• (c) Falsification
• (d) Intermittent

82. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Extenuate

• (a) Strengthen
• (b) Enfeeble
• (c) Abate
• (d) Acquit

83. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Fecund

• (a) Prolific
• (b) Sterile
• (c) Necessitate
• (d) Turmoil

84. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase. The thin end of the wedge

• (a) In strict vigilance
• (b) Start of harmful development
• (c) Be aware of the trick
• (d) Not a worthy possession

85. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase. To accept the gauntlet

• (a) To accept challenge
• (b) To accept defeat
• (c) To accept what is written in fate
• (d) To be able to grasp the hidden meaning

86. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. The (reason of) her outburst in the party is yet unknown.

• (a) reason for
• (b) reason to
• (c) reason on
• (d) No improvement

87. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. I left my job because I did not (agree to) the company's appraisal policies.

• (a) agree about
• (b) agree with
• (c) agree on
• (d) No improvement

88. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. Speaking with a stammer or lisp

• (a) Melliloquent
• (b) Dentiloquent
• (c) Fatiloquent
• (d) Stuttering

89. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. Excessive desire to work

• (a) Ergomania
• (b) Idolomania
• (c) Islomania
• (d) Ethnomania

90. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

• (a) Pertinacious
• (b) Demarcation
• (c) Temperament
• (d) Sureptitious

91. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

• (a) Treachery
• (b) Refrendum
• (c) Suppression
• (d) Resemblance

92. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P: While the Soviet Government bought grain and other foreign consumer goods to be sold in domestic markets at heavily subsidized rates, Russia rejected socialism. Q: The oil industry was the prime target of a sweeping privatization drive launched after the break-up of the Soviet Union. oil. S: However, not all Russian have been rolling in oil wealth.

• (a) QSRP
• (b) PRQS
• (c) RQSP
• (d) RSPQ

93. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. of the turbulence in financial markets and the low returns in treasuries. Q: The relatively easy liquidity and low interest rates, by themselves, make holding of inventories attractive and thus induce volatility in commodity markets. R: The financialisation of commodity trade and current extraordinary conditions in global financial markets could have influenced the spurt in prices. S: The weakening of the US dollar is also advanced as a reason for the recent volatility in commodity markets, including food items.

• (a) PRQS
• (b) SPQR
• (c) QSPR
• (d) RPQS

94. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. I hope that I shall win this dance competition.

• (a) It is hoped that the dance competition will be won by me.
• (b) Winning the dance competition is hoped by me.
• (c) Dance competition winning is my hope.
• (d) The dance competition is hoped to be won.

95. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. He said, "Let it rain I have to go."

• (a) He persisted that he did not care for the rain and he had to go.
• (b) He said that rain can't stop him to go out.
• (c) He exclaimed that let it rain but he will go.
• (d) He said that he can't go just because it is raining.

96. India's motto has been Vasudeva Kutumbakam or that the whole world is _____ community.

• (a) one
• (b) distinct
• (c) essential
• (d) significant

97. There are a _____ of pillars upon which India's policy

• (a) numerous
• (b) number
• (c) many
• (d) loop

98. of living in peace with and _____ peace among nations of the world rests.

• (a) disturbing
• (b) allowing
• (c) generating
• (d) promoting

99. economic and cultural cooperation disarmament and peaceful _____ of nuclear energy

• (a) uses
• (b) disruption
• (c) sources
• (d) negotiation

100. _____ of International disputes through negotiations and peaceful means are some of the salient features

• (a) urge
• (b) requirement
• (c) settlement
• (d) enactment