ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 6 September 2016, Shift 2 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2016-tier-1-6-sep-shift-2/
Question paper · SSC CGL
SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 6 September 2016, Shift 2
6 September 2016 · 1:15 PM–2:30 PM80 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one
20 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.
Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 6 September 2016, 1:15 PM–2:30 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: Calender : Dates : : Dictionary: ?
- (a) Words
- (b) Books
- (c) Language
- (d) Vocabulary
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Answer: (a)
2. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: ACEG : BDFH : : PRTV : ?
- (a) QSUW
- (b) WUSQ
- (c) OQSU
- (d) CEGI
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Answer: (a)
3. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: 15 : 225 : : 12 : ?
- (a) 144
- (b) 122
- (c) 112
- (d) 222
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Answer: (a)
4. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
- (a) Teacher and Student
- (b) Chemistry and Science
- (c) History and Mathematics
- (d) Air and Oxygen
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Answer: (c)
5. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
- (a) DGI
- (b) JMO
- (c) PRT
- (d) TWY
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Answer: (c)
6. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
- (a) 343
- (b) 64
- (c) 75
- (d) 27
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Answer: (c)
7. Arrange the following words as per the order in a ditionary. 1. Drum 2. Drubbing 3. Drunken 4. Drudgery 5. Duster
- (a) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
- (b) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
- (c) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
- (d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
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Answer: (b)
8. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. BMY, DNW, FOU, ?
- (a) GHO
- (b) HGO
- (c) HPS
- (d) HPT
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Answer: (c)
9. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. (3, 5), (5, 7) ( ? ), (11, 13)
- (a) (7, 9)
- (b) (7, 11)
- (c) (9, 11)
- (d) (9, 13)
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Answer: (b)
10. I go 5 km East, then turn right and go 8km. Then I turn left and go 5 km and then I turn left and go 8 km. At what distance am I from the starting point?
- (a) 8
- (b) 0
- (c) 10
- (d) 5
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Answer: (c)
11. Pankaj is taller than Vinod, who is shorter than Pramod. Usha is taller then priyanka but shorter than Vinod. Pramod is shorter than Pankaj. Who is the tallest?
- (a) Priyanka
- (b) Pramod
- (c) Vinod
- (d) Pankaj
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Answer: (d)
12. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: MEASUREMENT
- (a) Master
- (b) Eastern
- (c) Summit
- (d) Mean
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Answer: (c)
13. In a certain code, "go home" is written as "ta na" and "nice little home" is written as "na ja pa". How is "go" written in that code?
- (a) ta
- (b) na
- (c) ja
- (d) na or ta
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Answer: (a)
14. If P denotes '÷', Q denotes 'x', R denotes '+' and S denotes '-', then 18Q12P4R5S6 = ?
- (a) 53
- (b) 54
- (c) 57
- (d) 95
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Answer: (a)
15. If 23 x 16 = 184, 37 x 10 = 185, then 85 x 12 = ?
- (a) 511
- (b) 610
- (c) 510
- (d) 410
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Answer: (c)
16. Select the missing number from the given responses
- (a) 2
- (b) 3
- (c) 10
- (d) 11
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Answer: (c)
17. Rana walks 20 m straight in north direction and 20 m to the right. Then every turning to his left he walks 5, 25 and 25 metres respectively. How far is he from his starting point now?
- (a) 5 m
- (b) 20 m
- (c) 25 m
- (d) 30 m
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Answer: (a)
18. Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Statement: 1. Some girls are stars. 2. Meena is a girl. Conclusion I: Meena is a star ConclusionII: Some stars are not girls
- (a) Only Conclusion I follows
- (b) Only Conclusion II follows
- (c) Both Conclusions I and II follows
- (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
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Answer: (b)
25. In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., 'A' can be represented by 04, 12 , etc., and 'R' can be represented by 55, 67, etc.Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word 'BENT'.
- (a) 42, 34, 79, 77
- (b) 00, 11, 76, 78
- (c) 31, 22, 88, 58
- (d) 42, 34, 76, 88
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Answer: (c)
General Awareness
26. Which of the following states has the lowest literacy rate?
- (a) Kerala
- (b) Rajasthan
- (c) Bihar
- (d) Maharashtra
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Answer: (c)
27. On which date is India likely to experience the shortest day?
- (a) December 22
- (b) March 21
- (c) June 22
- (d) September 23
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Answer: (a)
28. Precipitation in the form of a mixture of rain and snow is called
- (a) Drizzle
- (b) Hail
- (c) Sleet
- (d) Snow
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Answer: (c)
29. Fuse wire is made of an alloy of
- (a) Tin and Lead
- (b) Tin and Copper
- (c) Lead and Copper
- (d) Copper and Silver
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Answer: (a)
30. Bacterial decomposition of biological material under anaerobic condition is
- (a) fermentation
- (b) fertilization
- (c) contamination
- (d) composting
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Answer: (a)
31. Which of the following has the lowest frequency?
- (a) Visible light
- (b) Gamma rays
- (c) X-rays
- (d) Ultra violet rays
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Answer: (a)
33. The important book written by Kautilya is
- (a) Arthashastra
- (b) Indica
- (c) Arya Manju Sri Mula Kapa
- (d) Rajatarangini
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Answer: (a)
34. The northern part of the west coast in India is known as
- (a) Konkan coast
- (b) Coromandel coast
- (c) Malabar coast
- (d) Godavari Coast
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Answer: (a)
35. The elements known as primary nutrients for plants
- (a) Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium
- (b) Nitrogen, Oxygen and Silicon
- (c) Potassium, Boron and Nitrogen
- (d) Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Iron
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Answer: (a)
36. Which sanctuary in India is famous for Rhinoceros and in which state is it located?
- (a) Gir, Gujarat
- (b) Kaziranga, Assam
- (c) Ranthambore, Rajasthan
- (d) Corbett, Uttarakhand
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Answer: (b)
37. ‘Davis Cup’ is associated with the game of
- (a) Cricket
- (b) Lawn Tennis
- (c) Badminton
- (d) Table Tennis
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Answer: (b)
38. Charles Darwin, the famous evolutionist, proposed his theory in which one of his books ?
- (a) The families of flowering plant
- (b) The origin of species
- (c) The life on earth
- (d) The story of the living world
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Answer: (b)
39. ‘Green Banking’ means :
- (a) Banks financing agriculture
- (b) Banks financing irrigation projects
- (c) Banks financing farmers
- (d) Banks financing pro-environmental projects
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Answer: (d)
40. Who was the first Indian Governor General of Independent India?
- (a) Rajendra Prasad
- (b) C. Rajagopalachari
- (c) A. Kriplani
- (d) Lord Mountbatten
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Answer: (b)
41. A fresh egg when placed in salt water will
- (a) sink and go to the bottom
- (b) sink but will not go to the bottom
- (c) float
- (d) burst
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Answer: (c)
42. A genetically engineered form of brinjal known as the BT-brinjal has been developed. The objective of this is
- (a) to make it pest resistant
- (b) to improve its taste and nutritive value
- (c) to make it drought resistant
- (d) to make its shelf-life longer
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Answer: (a)
43. Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are _________
- (a) wheat, rice, barley
- (b) rice, maize, sorghum
- (c) wheat, maize, sorghum
- (d) wheat, rice, maize
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Answer: (d)
44. Which of the following is a tertiary activity?
- (a) Farming
- (b) Manufacturing
- (c) Dairying
- (d) Trading
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Answer: (d)
45. The compound used in prickly-heat powder to prevent excessive sweating is
- (a) Boric acid
- (b) Phosphoric acid
- (c) Carbonic acid
- (d) Sulphonic acid
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Answer: (a)
46. Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of global warming?
- (a) Increased frequency of hurricanes
- (b) Loss of fertile delta region as for agriculture
- (c) Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation
- (d) Shrinking of the polar ice regions
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Answer: (c)
47. Which State in India has introduced FAT Tax on junk food
- (a) Rajasthan
- (b) Kerala
- (c) Andhra Pradesh
- (d) Bihar
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Answer: (b)
48. Gandhiji's first Satyagraha in India was held at __________
- (a) Champaran
- (b) Ahmedabad
- (c) Kheda
- (d) Allahabad
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Answer: (a)
49. Golden Quadrilateral Project for the development of National Highways was initiated by
- (a) P V Narasimha Rao
- (b) I K Gujral
- (c) Manmohan Singh
- (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
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Answer: (d)
50. Which of the following sources has the largest share in power generation in India?
- (a) Atomic power
- (b) Thermal power
- (c) Hydro power
- (d) Wind power
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Answer: (b)
Quantitative Aptitude
51. 24 men can do a piece of work in 17 days.How many men will be able to do it in 51 days ?
- (a) 8
- (b) 10
- (c) 12
- (d) 6
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Answer: (a)
52. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD , the side AB is extended to a point X. If ∠XBC = 82° and ∠ADB = 47° , then the value of ∠BDC is
- (a) 40°
- (b) 35°
- (c) 30°
- (d) 25°
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Answer: (b)
53. The marked price is 10% higher than the cost price . A discount of 10% is given to the marked price . In this kind of sale the seller
- (a) bears no gain , no loss
- (b) gains
- (c) loses 1%
- (d) None of these
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Answer: (c)
54. Two numbers whose sum is 84 can not be in the ratio
- (a) 5:7
- (b) 13:8
- (c) 1:3
- (d) 3:2
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Answer: (d)
55. By selling cloth at Rs. 9 per metre , a shopkeeper loses 10% . Find the rate at which it should be sold so as to earn profit of 15%
- (a) Rs.11.20
- (b) Rs.11.30
- (c) Rs.11.40
- (d) Rs.11.50
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Answer: (d)
57. A train 110 metres long is running with a speed of 60 kmph . In what time will it pass a man who is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going ?
- (a) 5 sec
- (b) 6 sec
- (c) 7 sec
- (d) 10 sec
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Answer: (b)
58. If x = at2 and y = 2at then
- (a) x2 = 4ay
- (b) y2 = 4ax
- (c) x2 + y2 = a2
- (d) x2 - y2 = a2
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Answer: (b)
60. If PQ and PR be the two tangents to a circle with centre O such that ∠QPR = 120° then ∠POQ is
- (a) 90°
- (b) 45°
- (c) 30°
- (d) 60°
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Answer: (c)
61. In Δ ABC , if ∠BAC = 90° and AB = AC , then ∠ABC is
- (a) 30°
- (b) 60°
- (c) 45°
- (d) 25°
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Answer: (c)
62. The value of tan 315° cot (- 405° ) is equal to
- (a) -1
- (b) 1
- (c) 0
- (d) 2
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Answer: (b)
63. Among three numbers , second is twice the first and also thrice the third . If the average of the three numbers is 33 , then the largest number is
- (a) 36
- (b) 54
- (c) 62
- (d) 72
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Answer: (b)
64. The average of 100 items was found to be 30 . If at the time of calculation , two items were wrongly taken as 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11 , then the correct average is
- (a) 29.8
- (b) 29
- (c) 29.9
- (d) 29.5
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Answer: (c)
65. A box weighs 8.5 kg when full of sand and weighs 5.5 kg when it is half filled with sand . Weight of the empty box is
- (a) 5 kg
- (b) 6 kg
- (c) 2.5 kg
- (d) 4.5 kg
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Answer: (c)
69. If the elevation of the Sun changes from 30° to 60° , then the difference between the lengths of shadows of a pole 15 m high, is
- (a) 7.5 m
- (b) 15 m
- (c) 10√3 m
- (d) 5√3 m
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Answer: (c)
70. If a sum of Rs.12500 is invested for 1 year at 12% per annum interest being compounded semi-annually, then interest earned is
- (a) Rs.1505
- (b) Rs.1535
- (c) Rs.1545
- (d) Rs.1550
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Answer: (c)
73. The pie - chart , given here shows monthly expenses on various heads and savings of the family of Mr Rao. Study the chart and answer the questions based on it. What percent of his income does Mr. Rao save ?
- (a) 25%
- (b) 30%
- (c) 33⅓%
- (d) 36%
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Answer: (b)
74. The pie - chart , given here shows monthly expenses on various heads and savings of the family of Mr Rao. Study the chart and answer the questions based on it. If the total income of Mr.Rao is Rs.72000 ,how much house rent does he pay ?
- (a) Rs.5400
- (b) Rs.9000
- (c) Rs.10800
- (d) Rs.12000
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Answer: (c)
English Comprehension
76. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it. OBSEQUIOUS
- (a) DEFIANT
- (b) DISHONEST
- (c) SERVILE
- (d) HONEST
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Answer: (c)
77. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it. RUGGED
- (a) HARD
- (b) STURDY
- (c) SMOOTH
- (d) ROUGH
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Answer: (c)
78. Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.
- (a) Counterfeit
- (b) Counterfeet
- (c) Counter feet
- (d) Counterfiet
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Answer: (a)
79. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. When the stranger saw me, (A) / he seemed to recognise me (B) / and asked me what was my name. (C) / No Error (D)
- (a) A
- (b) B
- (c) C
- (d) D
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Answer: (c)
80. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. My lawn (A) / which is overgrown (B) / needs weeding (C) / No Error (D)
- (a) A
- (b) B
- (c) C
- (d) D
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Answer: (d)
81. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. Every man in this world (A) / wishes to live long (B) / but nobody wanted to grow old. (C) / No Error (D)
- (a) A
- (b) B
- (c) C
- (d) D
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Answer: (c)
82. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. One should always set _____ some money for emergency.
- (a) aside
- (b) on
- (c) by
- (d) out
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Answer: (a)
83. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. The train is expected to arrive in a few minutes _____ platform six.
- (a) in
- (b) above
- (c) near
- (d) on
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Answer: (d)
84. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. I haven't had _____ opportunity to study during the day.
- (a) very
- (b) many
- (c) much
- (d) more
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Answer: (c)
85. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Cheek by jowl
- (a) Very close together
- (b) Arguing
- (c) Teasing one another
- (d) Avoiding one another
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Answer: (a)
86. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Beyond the pale
- (a) Unreasonable or unacceptable
- (b) Beyond redemption
- (c) Full of rhetoric
- (d) Distasteful
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Answer: (a)
87. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Blow one's own trumpet
- (a) Play some music
- (b) Surprise oneself
- (c) Praise oneself
- (d) Condone oneself
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Answer: (c)
88. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. Shine with a bright but brief or irregular light
- (a) Whimper
- (b) Flicker
- (c) Cower
- (d) Mutter
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Answer: (b)
89. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. The act of setting free from bondage of any kind
- (a) Emancipation
- (b) Eradication
- (c) Indemnity
- (d) Emigration
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Answer: (a)
90. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. A disease that affects a large number of people in an area at the same time
- (a) Endemic
- (b) Epidemic
- (c) Epidermic
- (d) Endothermic
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Answer: (b)
PassageFor questions 96–100
A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Most successful companies, institutions and organizations have mission statements. Most individuals don't. As the Chief Executive Officer of your own life in the knowledge era, you need a laser like focus in your vision. You need a mission and a mission statement describing how you want to live, not just what you want to own; defining the person you want to become, not just the title you want to see on your door; outlining the knowledge you will receive, not just the degree you'll earn or your next promotion. I began the process this way : "To be aware of the uniqueness of my associates, clients, friends and family, and to treat that uniqueness with loving concern. I was created to lead myself and others to understand win-win relationships and how to use them to improve the lives of all persons with whom I come into contact." You, too, can frame your mission statement starting with your core values, working outward to your material desires and financial needs.
96. What should a person's mission statement begin with?
- (a) Your core values
- (b) What you want to acquire
- (c) Your monetary ambitions
- (d) Your next promotion
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Answer: (a)
97. What is the narrator's mission?
- (a) To discourage his friends and associates in every endeavour.
- (b) To improve the lives of all his associates.
- (c) To be aware of the strengths and weaknesses of his friends.
- (d) To ill-treat all.
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Answer: (b)
98. What does a 'win-win' relationship mean?
- (a) Every one must win always
- (b) There are no challenges
- (c) The relationship is beneficial to both parties
- (d) The competition is friendly
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Answer: (c)
99. What are the suggested components of a 'mission statement'?
- (a) Win-win attitude, financial needs, knowledge
- (b) Core-values, material desires, financial needs
- (c) Academic qualifications, love, material desires
- (d) Core-values, joy, self- confidence
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Answer: (b)
100. Who is responsible for designing a personal mission?
- (a) A Chief Executive Officer
- (b) The family and friends
- (c) The Individual
- (d) The company
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Answer: (c)
Show answers
Answer key
Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.
General Intelligence and Reasoning
- Q 1
- (a)
- Q 2
- (a)
- Q 3
- (a)
- Q 4
- (c)
- Q 5
- (c)
- Q 6
- (c)
- Q 7
- (b)
- Q 8
- (c)
- Q 9
- (b)
- Q 10
- (c)
- Q 11
- (d)
- Q 12
- (c)
- Q 13
- (a)
- Q 14
- (a)
- Q 15
- (c)
- Q 16
- (c)
- Q 17
- (a)
- Q 18
- (b)
- Q 25
- (c)
General Awareness
- Q 26
- (c)
- Q 27
- (a)
- Q 28
- (c)
- Q 29
- (a)
- Q 30
- (a)
- Q 31
- (a)
- Q 33
- (a)
- Q 34
- (a)
- Q 35
- (a)
- Q 36
- (b)
- Q 37
- (b)
- Q 38
- (b)
- Q 39
- (d)
- Q 40
- (b)
- Q 41
- (c)
- Q 42
- (a)
- Q 43
- (d)
- Q 44
- (d)
- Q 45
- (a)
- Q 46
- (c)
- Q 47
- (b)
- Q 48
- (a)
- Q 49
- (d)
- Q 50
- (b)
Quantitative Aptitude
- Q 51
- (a)
- Q 52
- (b)
- Q 53
- (c)
- Q 54
- (d)
- Q 55
- (d)
- Q 57
- (b)
- Q 58
- (b)
- Q 60
- (c)
- Q 61
- (c)
- Q 62
- (b)
- Q 63
- (b)
- Q 64
- (c)
- Q 65
- (c)
- Q 69
- (c)
- Q 70
- (c)
- Q 73
- (b)
- Q 74
- (c)
English Comprehension
- Q 76
- (c)
- Q 77
- (c)
- Q 78
- (a)
- Q 79
- (c)
- Q 80
- (d)
- Q 81
- (c)
- Q 82
- (a)
- Q 83
- (d)
- Q 84
- (c)
- Q 85
- (a)
- Q 86
- (a)
- Q 87
- (c)
- Q 88
- (b)
- Q 89
- (a)
- Q 90
- (b)
- Q 96
- (a)
- Q 97
- (b)
- Q 98
- (c)
- Q 99
- (b)
- Q 100
- (c)