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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 28 August 2016, Shift 3 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2016-tier-1-28-aug-shift-3/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 28 August 2016, Shift 3

28 August 2016 · 4:15 PM–5:30 PM85 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

15 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 28 August 2016, 4:15 PM–5:30 PM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Head : Human Body :: ?

    • (a) Arc : Circle
    • (b) Cube : Circle
    • (c) Square : Circle
    • (d) Triangle : Circle
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. PZQW : NXOU :: FISK : ?

    • (a) EFPJ
    • (b) FERI
    • (c) DGQI
    • (d) HKVM
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 7 : 19 :: 10 : ?

    • (a) 25
    • (b) 30
    • (c) 21
    • (d) 23
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 4. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

    • (a) Bigger
    • (b) Faster
    • (c) Greater
    • (d) Taller
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

    • (a) AEIM
    • (b) BFJN
    • (c) CGKO
    • (d) FDKN
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

    • (a) 140 → 45
    • (b) 110 → 35
    • (c) 100 → 30
    • (d) 80 → 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 7. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary 1. Forest 2. Fascinating 3. Fantastic 4. Fabulous

    • (a) 2, 4, 3, 1
    • (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
    • (c) 4, 3, 2, 1
    • (d) 2, 3, 4, 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 8. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? a_ ca_c_dc_d_ad_

    • (a) ddacdc
    • (b) daadca
    • (c) dadaac
    • (d) ddaacc
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Which number comes next in the series? 1, 5, 2, 6, 3, 7, ?

    • (a) 6
    • (b) 5
    • (c) 4
    • (d) 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 10. P and Q are sisters. R and S are brothers. P's daughter is R's sister. What is Q's relation to S?

    • (a) Mother
    • (b) Grandmother
    • (c) Sister
    • (d) Aunt
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 11. A man was 32 years of age when he had his first son. His wife was 35 years of age when his son attained the age of 7 years. The difference between the age of the father and the mother is _____ .

    • (a) 7 years
    • (b) 3 years
    • (c) 5 years
    • (d) 4 years
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  12. 12. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: ANNOUNCEMENTS

    • (a) CEMENT
    • (b) NOUN
    • (c) COUNTER
    • (d) TENSE
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. If RATION is written as OXQFLK then LUMBER may be written as _____ .

    • (a) KTLADQ
    • (b) ITJABQ
    • (c) OXPEHU
    • (d) IRJYBO
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. A*B means multiply A by B; A@B means divide A by B, A?B means add B to A and A=B means subtract B from A. Then find the value of 10*10 = 5*10 ? 50@10

    • (a) 100
    • (b) 45
    • (c) 1000
    • (d) 55
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 15. If 37*14 = 17, 69*33 = 34, 91*125 = 72 then what should 28*56 = ?

    • (a) 26
    • (b) 42
    • (c) 34
    • (d) 28
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  16. 16. Select the missing numbers from the given responses

    • (a) 110
    • (b) 120
    • (c) 130
    • (d) 140
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 17. P started walking from North to South. She turned right at right angle and then again right at right angle. In which direction was she ultimately walking?

    • (a) North
    • (b) East
    • (c) South
    • (d) West
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  18. 18. Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Statement: All states having dams face no water problem. One of the states has no dam. Conclusions: I. It may be facing water problem. II. Dams solve water problem.

    • (a) Only conclusion I follows
    • (b) Only conclusion II follows
    • (c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
    • (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 25. In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., 'A' can be represented by 03, 55, etc., and 'P' can be represented by 10, 99, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word 'VENU'

    • (a) 69, 87, 32, 41
    • (b) 85, 02, 20, 57
    • (c) 11, 95, 89, 57
    • (d) 69, 95, 22, 04
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

General Awareness

  1. 26. What is the phenomenon which established the transverse nature of light ?

    • (a) Reflection
    • (b) Interference
    • (c) Diffraction
    • (d) Polarisation
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 27. What is the name of a memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential ?

    • (a) Cache
    • (b) Stack Pointer
    • (c) Accumulator
    • (d) DISC
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  3. 28. What is contained in Chlorophyll ?

    • (a) sodium
    • (b) potassium
    • (c) manganese
    • (d) magnesium
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  4. 29. Epigraphy is the study of which of the following ?

    • (a) Coins
    • (b) Inscriptions
    • (c) Temples
    • (d) Birds
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 30. Who won the Women's Singles Wimbledon Championship 2016 ?

    • (a) Angilique Kuber
    • (b) Serena Williams
    • (c) Venus Williams
    • (d) Steffi Graff
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 31. In which field is B.C. Roy Award given ?

    • (a) Music
    • (b) Journalism
    • (c) Medicine
    • (d) Environment
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 32. What is Damodar Valley Corporation ?

    • (a) Statutory body
    • (b) Municipal Corporation looking after Damodar Valley
    • (c) A private enterprise located in Bihar
    • (d) A non government organisation
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 33. Which is the highest gallantry Award in India?

    • (a) Vir Chakra
    • (b) Param Vishist Seva Medal
    • (c) Kirti Chakra
    • (d) Param Vir Chakra
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 34. Who was recently appointed as the first woman president of Nepal?

    • (a) Sita Subedi
    • (b) Pampha Bhusal
    • (c) Urmila Rana
    • (d) Bidhya Devi Bhandari
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 35. In which field is Pulitzer Prize awarded for outstanding work ?

    • (a) Environment study
    • (b) Science and Technology
    • (c) Literature and Journalism
    • (d) International Understanding
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 36. Why is Carbon Monoxide a pollutant ?

    • (a) Reacts with haemoglobin
    • (b) Makes nervous system inactive
    • (c) It reacts with Oxygen
    • (d) It inhibits glycolysis
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 37. Why is Rann Of Kutch of India famous for ?

    • (a) Tidal and flats
    • (b) Fertile soil
    • (c) Dense Vegetation
    • (d) All are correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  13. 38. Commercial banks lend to which of the following Priority sectors?

    • (a) Heavy Industries
    • (b) Agriculture, Small scale industries
    • (c) Foreign Companies
    • (d) State government in emergency situation
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 39. What is the accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India ?

    • (a) April-March
    • (b) July-June
    • (c) October-September
    • (d) January-December
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 40. What is the position of the Earth when it is at the greatest distance from the sun ?

    • (a) Aphelion
    • (b) Antipode
    • (c) Perihelion
    • (d) Aldiatc
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 41. The biogas used for cooking is a mixture of which of the following ?

    • (a) Carbon dioxide & oxygen
    • (b) Isobutane & propane
    • (c) Methane & carbon monoxide
    • (d) Methane & carbon dioxide
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 42. From the following, who was the first women speaker of Lok Sabha?

    • (a) Sushma Swaraj
    • (b) Margret Alva
    • (c) Meera Kumar
    • (d) Sarojini Naidu
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 43. Which of the following wind is blowing from the Mediterranean sea to the North Western parts of India?

    • (a) Western disturbances
    • (b) Norwesters
    • (c) Loo
    • (d) Mango showers
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 44. Azolla increases soil fertility for ….

    • (a) maize cultivation
    • (b) wheat cultivation
    • (c) barley cultivation
    • (d) rice cultivation
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  20. 45. Which of the following is not provided in the constitution ?

    • (a) Election Commission
    • (b) Finance Commission
    • (c) Public Service Commission
    • (d) Planning Commission
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 46. What is the popular name of Monolithic rock shrines at Mahabalipuram ?

    • (a) Rathas
    • (b) Prasadas
    • (c) Mathika
    • (d) Gandhakuti
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  22. 47. What is the name of the device used to convert alternating current into direct current ?

    • (a) Ammeter
    • (b) Galvanometer
    • (c) Rectifier
    • (d) Transformer
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 48. Why does ice covered in sawdust not melt quickly?

    • (a) Sawdust does not allow the air to touch the ice
    • (b) The water is absorbed by sawdust
    • (c) Sawdust is a bad conductor of heat
    • (d) Sawdust is good conductor of heat
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  24. 49. Which layer of the earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

    • (a) Troposphere
    • (b) Mesosphere
    • (c) Ionosphere
    • (d) Stratosphere
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 50. Where is the Great Barrier Reef located ?

    • (a) Pacific Ocean
    • (b) Indian Ocean
    • (c) Atlantic Ocean
    • (d) Arctic Ocean
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 51. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 5, is 225. The largest among them is

    • (a) 85
    • (b) 75
    • (c) 70
    • (d) 80
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 52. A can do a piece of work in 18 days. He worked at it for 12 days and B finished the remaining work in 8 days. B alone can do the whole work in

    • (a) 16 days
    • (b) 24 days
    • (c) 28 days
    • (d) 29 days
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 53. The list price of an article is Rs. 900. It is available at two successive discounts of 20% and 10% . The selling price of the article is:

    • (a) Rs. 640
    • (b) Rs. 648
    • (c) Rs. 540
    • (d) Rs. 548
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 54. A man spends a part of his monthly income and saves the rest. The ratio of his expenditure to the saving is 61 : 6. If his monthly income is Rs.8710, the amount of his monthly savings is

    • (a) Rs.870
    • (b) Rs.690
    • (c) Rs.980
    • (d) Rs.780
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 55. An article was sold at Rs. 950 allowing 5% discount on the marked price. The marked price of the article is

    • (a) Rs. 960
    • (b) Rs. 1000
    • (c) Rs. 955
    • (d) Rs. 945
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  6. 56. A person loses 75% of his money in the first bet, 75% of the remaining in the second and 75% of the remaining in the third bet and returns home with Rs. 2 only. His initial money was

    • (a) Rs. 64
    • (b) Rs. 128
    • (c) Rs. 256
    • (d) Rs. 512
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 57. The time taken by a train 160 m long, running at 72 km/hr, in crossing an electric pole is

    • (a) 8 sec
    • (b) 9 sec
    • (c) 6 sec
    • (d) 4 sec
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 59. If a = 2 , b = -3 then the value of 27 a3 - 54a2b + 36 ab2 - 8b3 is

    • (a) 1562
    • (b) 1616
    • (c) 1676
    • (d) 1728
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 60. Possible length of the three sides of a triangle are :-

    • (a) 2 cm , 3 cm , 6 cm
    • (b) 3 cm , 4 cm , 5 cm
    • (c) 2.5 cm , 3.5 cm , 6 cm
    • (d) 4 cm , 4 cm , 9 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  10. 61. AD is the Median of Δ ABC. If O is the centroid and AO = 10 cm then OD is

    • (a) 5 cm
    • (b) 20 cm
    • (c) 10 cm
    • (d) 30 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  11. 63. Incentre of Δ ABC is I. ∠ABC = 90° and ∠ACB = 70°. ∠AIC is

    • (a) 115°
    • (b) 100°
    • (c) 110°
    • (d) 105°
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 64. The length of the two adjacent sides of a rectangle inscribed in a circle are 5 cm and 12 cm respectively. Then the radius of the circle will be

    • (a) 6 cm
    • (b) 6 . 5 cm
    • (c) 8 cm
    • (d) 8 .5 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  13. 65. If sinθ x cosθ = ½ . The value of sinθ - cosθ is where 0°< θ< 90°

    • (a) 0
    • (b) √2
    • (c) 2
    • (d) 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 66. The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 40. It was found later on that one of the observations was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct mean is:

    • (a) 39
    • (b) 39.7
    • (c) 40.3
    • (d) 42.7
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 69. A sphere of radius 5 cm is melted to form a cone with base of same radius. The height (in cm) of the cone is

    • (a) 5
    • (b) 10
    • (c) 20
    • (d) 22
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 70. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 41. What is the sum of money?

    • (a) Rs.7200
    • (b) Rs.9600
    • (c) Rs.16400
    • (d) Rs.8400
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 71. A man standing on the bank of river observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the opposite bank is 60o. When he retires 36 m from the bank, he finds that the angle is 30o. The breadth of the river is

    • (a) 15 m
    • (b) 18 m
    • (c) 16 m
    • (d) 11 m
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  18. 72. Study the bar-graph given below which shows the % distribution of total expenditures of a company under various expense and answer the questions. The expenditures on the interest on loans is more than the expenditures on transport by

    • (a) 5%
    • (b) 10%
    • (c) 40%
    • (d) 30%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  19. 73. Study the bar-graph given below which shows the % distribution of total expenditures of a company under various expense and answer the questions. If the interest on loans amounted to ₹ 2.45 crores, then the total amount of expenditure on advertisement, taxes and research & development is:

    • (a) ₹ 7 Crores
    • (b) ₹ 4.2 Crores
    • (c) ₹ 5.4 Crores
    • (d) ₹ 3 Crores
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 74. Study the bar-graph given below which shows the % distribution of total expenditures of a company under various expense and answer the questions. The ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the total expenditure on taxes and interest on loans is:

    • (a) 5:4
    • (b) 8:7
    • (c) 9:7
    • (d) 13:11
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  21. 75. Study the bar-graph given below which shows the % distribution of total expenditures of a company under various expense and answer the questions. If the total expenditure of the company is Rs. 20 crores, then the ratio of expenditure on transport to that on salary is

    • (a) 5:4
    • (b) 4:5
    • (c) 5:8
    • (d) 8:5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

English Comprehension

  1. 76. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it. ENIGMA

    • (a) ATTRACTIVE
    • (b) RIDDLE
    • (c) FLARE-UP
    • (d) DREAM
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  2. 77. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it. INERTIA

    • (a) STUPOR
    • (b) VIGOUR
    • (c) LANGUOR
    • (d) INERTNESS
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 78. Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

    • (a) Pious
    • (b) Pios
    • (c) Pieos
    • (d) Piuos
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  4. 79. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. Each child (A) / was given a (B) / red beautiful balloon. (C) / No error (D)

    • (a) A
    • (b) B
    • (c) C
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 80. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. She has had the best medical facilities available (A) / but she will not be cured (B) / unless she does not have a strong desire to live (C) / No error (D)

    • (a) A
    • (b) B
    • (c) C
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  6. 81. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. As if aware of my condition (A) / the infuriated bird suddenly doubled back on its course (B) / and charged straight after me (C) / No error (D)

    • (a) A
    • (b) B
    • (c) C
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  7. 82. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. The passengers were afraid but the captain ___________ them that there was no danger.

    • (a) suggested
    • (b) pleaded
    • (c) advise
    • (d) assured
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 83. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. I insisted ________ his leaving the place.

    • (a) on
    • (b) about
    • (c) in
    • (d) with
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  9. 84. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. Please don't ________ me when I'm speaking.

    • (a) interrupted
    • (b) interrupts
    • (c) interrupt
    • (d) interrupting
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 85. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Beat around the bush

    • (a) Walk around the forest
    • (b) Clean the bushy areas
    • (c) Avoiding the main topic
    • (d) Play around the forest
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 86. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Make room

    • (a) Clean the room
    • (b) Make space
    • (c) Attain the room
    • (d) Make a clean sweep
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 87. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Mend your ways

    • (a) Happy with one's behaviour
    • (b) Sad with one's behaviour
    • (c) Destroy one's behaviour
    • (d) Improve one's behaviour
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 88. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. A record of one's own life written by oneself

    • (a) History
    • (b) Biography
    • (c) Bibliography
    • (d) Autobiography
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 89. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. Belong to the same period

    • (a) Comrades
    • (b) Contemporaries
    • (c) Compromises
    • (d) Renegades
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 90. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. One who listens secretly to private conversation

    • (a) Eavesdropper
    • (b) Encroacher
    • (c) Eaves bearer
    • (d) Listener
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. PassageFor questions 96–100

    Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over million of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under sea-bed and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this material hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, thus preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rocks become thicker, and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.

  17. 96. How does crude oil come out of the earth ?

    • (a) Thick brown or black liquid with mild smell
    • (b) Thick red brown liquid with strong smell
    • (c) Mixture of different colours
    • (d) Thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 97. What is crude mineral oil?

    • (a) Complex mixture of many different substances
    • (b) Simple mixture of natural gas
    • (c) Plain white oil
    • (d) It is bitumen
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 98. From where does mineral oil originate?

    • (a) Complex mixture of substances
    • (b) Carcasses of tiny animals and plants that live in the sea
    • (c) From lakes
    • (d) Only from plants
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  20. 99. The time taken for the marine deposits to harden into rocks is

    • (a) a few centuries
    • (b) millions of years
    • (c) a few decades
    • (d) thousands of years
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 100. Sedimentary rocks leads to the formation of oil deposits because

    • (a) their pressure produces heat and turns deposits of animal carcasses and plants into oil.
    • (b) it turns heavy and shuts out the oxygen
    • (c) it becomes hard and forms into rocks to squeeze oil
    • (d) it becomes light and soft and applies pressure to produce oil
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(a)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(c)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(c)
Q 10
(d)
Q 11
(d)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(d)
Q 15
(d)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(a)
Q 18
(c)
Q 25
(b)

General Awareness

Q 26
(d)
Q 27
(a)
Q 28
(d)
Q 29
(b)
Q 30
(b)
Q 31
(c)
Q 32
(a)
Q 33
(d)
Q 34
(d)
Q 35
(c)
Q 36
(a)
Q 37
(a)
Q 38
(b)
Q 39
(b)
Q 40
(a)
Q 41
(d)
Q 42
(c)
Q 43
(a)
Q 44
(d)
Q 45
(d)
Q 46
(a)
Q 47
(c)
Q 48
(c)
Q 49
(d)
Q 50
(a)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 51
(d)
Q 52
(b)
Q 53
(b)
Q 54
(d)
Q 55
(b)
Q 56
(b)
Q 57
(a)
Q 59
(d)
Q 60
(b)
Q 61
(a)
Q 63
(c)
Q 64
(b)
Q 65
(a)
Q 66
(b)
Q 69
(c)
Q 70
(c)
Q 71
(b)
Q 72
(c)
Q 73
(b)
Q 74
(d)
Q 75
(c)

English Comprehension

Q 76
(b)
Q 77
(b)
Q 78
(a)
Q 79
(c)
Q 80
(c)
Q 81
(c)
Q 82
(d)
Q 83
(a)
Q 84
(c)
Q 85
(c)
Q 86
(b)
Q 87
(d)
Q 88
(d)
Q 89
(b)
Q 90
(a)
Q 96
(d)
Q 97
(a)
Q 98
(b)
Q 99
(b)
Q 100
(a)