ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 2 September 2016, Shift 1 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2016-tier-1-2-sep-shift-1/
Question paper · SSC CGL
SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 2 September 2016, Shift 1
2 September 2016 · 10:00 AM–11:15 AM82 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one
18 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.
Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 2 September 2016, 10:00 AM–11:15 AM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: Owl : Hoots :: Hen : ?
- (a) Chirps
- (b) Clucks
- (c) Coos
- (d) Cackles
Show answer
Answer: (b)
2. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: AKU : ? :: CMW : DNX
- (a) BGL
- (b) BLQ
- (c) BGQ
- (d) BLV
Show answer
Answer: (d)
3. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: 5 : 100 :: 7 : ?
- (a) 49
- (b) 196
- (c) 91
- (d) 135
Show answer
Answer: (b)
4. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
- (a) Time
- (b) Skill
- (c) Interest
- (d) Knowledge
Show answer
Answer: (a)
5. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
- (a) CPA
- (b) REB
- (c) QUD
- (d) AOT
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Answer: (a)
6. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
- (a) 15 - 21
- (b) 32 - 41
- (c) 22 - 27
- (d) 31 - 35
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Answer: (a)
7. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary and then choose the one which comes last. 1. Qualify 2.Quarter 3.Quarrel 4.Quaver
- (a) Qualify
- (b) Quarter
- (c) Quarrel
- (d) Quaver
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Answer: (d)
8. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. DF, GJ, KM, NQ, RT, ?
- (a) EI
- (b) UX
- (c) UV
- (d) XY
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Answer: (b)
9. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 2, 7, 14, 23, 34, ?
- (a) 47
- (b) 39
- (c) 42
- (d) 46
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Answer: (a)
10. A and B are standing at place "P". They start moving in the opposite directions at the speed of 5 Kmph and 4 Kmph respectively. What will be the distance between them after 3 hours?
- (a) 3 kms
- (b) 21 kms
- (c) 18 kms
- (d) 27 kms
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Answer: (d)
11. If Usha is taller than Nisha; Nisha is taller than Asha; Alka is taller then Usha. Harsha is shorter than Asha; then who among them is the tallest?
- (a) Usha
- (b) Alka
- (c) Nisha
- (d) Asha
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Answer: (b)
12. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: DHARAMSALA
- (a) MASALA
- (b) ARAMANA
- (c) RAMA
- (d) SAHARA
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Answer: (b)
13. If in a code GONE is written as ILPB then how may CRIB be written in that code?
- (a) EUKY
- (b) EKUY
- (c) EYUK
- (d) EOKY
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Answer: (d)
15. If 12x16 = 188 and 14x18 = 248, then find the value of 16x20 = ?
- (a) 320
- (b) 360
- (c) 316
- (d) 318
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Answer: (c)
16. Find the missing number from the given alternatives.
- (a) 60
- (b) 62
- (c) 64
- (d) 66
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Answer: (c)
17. One morning, Raju walked towards the sun. After some time he turned left and again to his left. Which direction is he facing?
- (a) North
- (b) South
- (c) East
- (d) West
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Answer: (d)
18. One or two statements are given followed by two conclusions/assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer. Statements: 1. If people are intelligent, they should be creative. Assumptions: I. Creativity and intelligence are related. II. Creative people are intelligent.
- (a) Only conclusion I follows
- (b) Only conclusion II follows
- (c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
- (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
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Answer: (c)
25. In this question, the sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., O can be represented by 03,11, etc., and 'F' can be represented by 55, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word 'BEAD'
- (a) 97, 32, 14, 56
- (b) 88, 41, 20, 57
- (c) 57, 32, 41, 87
- (d) 75, 14, 20, 57
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Answer: (c)
General Awareness
26. Who among the following Sikh Gurus had laid the foundation of Amritsar?
- (a) Guru Amar Das
- (b) Guru Ram Das
- (c) Guru Arjan Dev
- (d) Guru Har Govind
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Answer: (b)
27. In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976, which word was added to the Preamble?
- (a) Democratic
- (b) Equality
- (c) Secular
- (d) Socialist
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Answer: (c)
28. Which monument is known as "The National Monument of India"?
- (a) India Gate
- (b) Gateway of India
- (c) Raj Ghat
- (d) Red fort
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Answer: (a)
29. Which of the following country has recently declared 3 month emergency following a failed military coup?
- (a) Sudan
- (b) Turkey
- (c) Maldives
- (d) Syria
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Answer: (b)
30. The award which, the famous writer and social activist Mahasweta Devi, who passed away recently, did not win
- (a) Sahity Akademi Award
- (b) Jnanpith Award
- (c) Magsaysay Award
- (d) Padam Vibhushan
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Answer: (d)
31. Which place is said to be the Manchester of South India?
- (a) Coimbatore
- (b) Salem
- (c) Thanjavur
- (d) Madurai
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Answer: (a)
32. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting with it a
- (a) high resistance in parallel
- (b) low resistance on parallel
- (c) high resistance on series
- (d) low resistance in series
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Answer: (c)
33. In computer processing, __________ selects processes from the pool and loads them into memory for execution.
- (a) Job Scheduler
- (b) Resource Scheduler
- (c) CPU Scheduler
- (d) Process Scheduler
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Answer: (a)
34. Name the first cricketer to score 1000 runs in an innings in any competitive match
- (a) Prithvi Shaw
- (b) Pranav Dhanawade
- (c) Virat Kohli
- (d) Shikhar Dhawan
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Answer: (b)
35. The beach sands of Kerala are rich in
- (a) Calcium
- (b) Radium
- (c) Thorium
- (d) Manganese
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Answer: (c)
36. During which of the following operating conditions of an automobile, carbon monoxide content in exhaust gas is maximum?
- (a) Acceleration
- (b) Cruising
- (c) Idle running
- (d) Deacceleration
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Answer: (c)
37. India's first Railway University will come up at
- (a) Vadodara, Gujarat
- (b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
- (c) Hyderabad, Andra Pradesh
- (d) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
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Answer: (a)
38. The Himalayas is the example of ____
- (a) Fold mountains
- (b) Block mountains
- (c) Ancient mountains
- (d) Residual mountains
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Answer: (a)
39. The largest irrigation canal in India is _____________
- (a) Yamuna canal
- (b) Indira Gandhi canal
- (c) Sirhand canal
- (d) Upper Bari Doab canal
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Answer: (b)
40. Even after sunset, the air near the Earth's surface continue to receive heat due to
- (a) Insolation
- (b) Terrestrial Radiation
- (c) Conduction
- (d) Convection
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Answer: (b)
41. At the Rio Olympics, who was the flagbearer of the Indian contingent?
- (a) Narsingh Yadav
- (b) Abhinav Bindra
- (c) Dipa Karmakar
- (d) Sania Mirza
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Answer: (b)
42. A landscape which is caused due to the fissure in the earth along which one side has moved down with reference to the other is known as
- (a) Rift Valley
- (b) U Shaped Valley
- (c) V Shaped Valley
- (d) Hanging Valley
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Answer: (a)
43. The largest artery in human body is
- (a) Aorta
- (b) Capillary
- (c) Vena cava
- (d) Pulmonary vein
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Answer: (a)
44. An eudiometer measures
- (a) Atmospheric pressure
- (b) Time
- (c) Volume of gases
- (d) Vapour pressure
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Answer: (c)
45. Trinitrotoluene is
- (a) used to melt metals
- (b) used to fuse two metals
- (c) used as an abrasive
- (d) used as an explosive
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Answer: (d)
46. In a cut motion, when the amount of demand is reduced by Rs 100/- , it is known as
- (a) Disapproval of policy cut
- (b) Economy cut
- (c) Vote on Account
- (d) Token cut
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Answer: (d)
47. One of the leading producers of asbestos in the world is
- (a) Australia
- (b) Russia
- (c) Canada
- (d) Armenia
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Answer: (c)
48. Beighton Cup is associated with which of the following?
- (a) Cricket
- (b) Hockey
- (c) Football
- (d) Volleyball
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Answer: (b)
49. If Reserve Bank of India reduces the cash reserve ratio, it will :
- (a) increase credit creation
- (b) decrease credit creation
- (c) have no impact on credit creation
- (d) have no definite impact on credit creation
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Answer: (a)
50. Nitrification is the biological process of converting
- (a) N2 into nitrate
- (b) N2 into nitrite
- (c) Ammonia into nitrite
- (d) Ammonia into N2
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Answer: (c)
Quantitative Aptitude
51. If 20 men working 8 hours per day can complete a piece of work in 21 days. How many hours per day must 48 men work to complete the same job in 7 days?
- (a) 12
- (b) 20
- (c) 10
- (d) 15
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Answer: (c)
53. A shop keeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of cost price to the printed price of the book is
- (a) 45:56
- (b) 50: 61
- (c) 99: 125
- (d) None of these
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Answer: (a)
54. The number of pupils of a class is 55. The ratio of the number of male pupils to the number of female pupils is 5: 6. The number of female pupils is
- (a) 11
- (b) 25
- (c) 30
- (d) 35
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Answer: (c)
55. 5% more is gained by selling a watch for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340. The cost price of the watch is
- (a) Rs. 110
- (b) Rs. 140
- (c) Rs. 200
- (d) Rs. 250
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Answer: (c)
56. If 60% of the students in a school are boys and number of girls is 812, how many boys are there in the school?
- (a) 1128
- (b) 1218
- (c) 1821
- (d) 1281
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Answer: (b)
57. It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is:
- (a) 3:5
- (b) 3:4
- (c) 4: 3
- (d) 4: 5
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Answer: (b)
59. If m + n = 1, then the value of m3 + n3 + 3mn is equal to
- (a) 0
- (b) 1
- (c) 2
- (d) 3
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Answer: (b)
60. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two disjoint circles is
- (a) 1
- (b) 2
- (c) 4
- (d) Infinitely many
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Answer: (c)
61. In figure, DE || BC. If DE = 3 cm, BC = 6 cm and area of ΔADE = 15 sq cm, then the area of ΔABC is
- (a) 75 sq cm
- (b) 45 sq cm
- (c) 30 sq cm
- (d) 60 sq cm
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Answer: (d)
62. If cos4θ - sin4θ = 1/3, then the value of tan2θ is
- (a) 1/2
- (b) 1/3
- (c) 1/4
- (d) 1/5
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Answer: (a)
63. If a perfect square, not divisible by 6, be divided by 6, the remainder will be
- (a) 1, 3 or 5
- (b) 1, 2 or 5
- (c) 1, 3 or 4
- (d) 1, 2 or 4
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Answer: (c)
64. A batsman in his 12th innings makes a score of 120, and thereby increase his average by 5. The average score after 12th innings is
- (a) 60
- (b) 55
- (c) 65
- (d) 70
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Answer: (c)
67. The side BC of the ΔABC is extended to the point D. If ∠ ACD = 112° and ∠B = 3/4 ∠A, then the value of ∠B is
- (a) 64°
- (b) 48°
- (c) 46°
- (d) 50°
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Answer: (b)
68. ΔABC is a right angled triangle, the radius of its circumcircle is 3 cm and the length of its altitude drawn from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse is 2 cm. Then the area of the triangle is
- (a) 12 sq cm
- (b) 3 sq cm
- (c) 6 sq cm
- (d) 5 sq cm
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Answer: (c)
69. The height of a tower is 50√3 m. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 50 m from its feet is
- (a) 30°
- (b) 45°
- (c) 60°
- (d) 90°
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Answer: (c)
70. The amount of Rs. 10,000 after 2 years, compounded annually with the rate of interest being 10% per annum during the first year and 12% per annum during the second year, would be (in rupees)
- (a) 11,320
- (b) 12,000
- (c) 12,320
- (d) 12,500
Show answer
Answer: (c)
73. The bar graph given below shows the per acre yield (in kg) of different countries. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions By how much percentage is India's per acre yield more than that of Pakistan's?
- (a) 20%
- (b) 25%
- (c) 33 1/3%
- (d) 35%
Show answer
Answer: (b)
74. The bar graph given below shows the per acre yield (in kg) of different countries. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions Srilanka's yield (approximately) is what percentof total yield of all the countries?
- (a) 17.8%
- (b) 16.2%
- (c) 18.2%
- (d) 15.4%
Show answer
Answer: (b)
75. The bar graph given below shows the per acre yield (in kg) of different countries. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions Writing the yields of all countries in ascending order, the difference between the sum of yields of first three countries to that of last three countries is
- (a) 200 kg
- (b) 212 kg
- (c) 172 kg
- (d) 162 kg
Show answer
Answer: (c)
English Comprehension
76. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it. CUPIDITY
- (a) FEAR
- (b) FRIENDSHIP
- (c) GREED
- (d) LOVE
Show answer
Answer: (c)
77. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it. CAPTIVATE
- (a) DISTRACT
- (b) OBSCURE
- (c) IMPRISON
- (d) RELEASE
Show answer
Answer: (a)
78. Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.
- (a) Clandistine
- (b) Clandestine
- (c) Clandistene
- (d) Clandestene
Show answer
Answer: (b)
79. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option. Can I have (A) / a loaf of bread (B) / and a jam jar? (C) / No error (D)
- (a) A
- (b) B
- (c) C
- (d) D
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Answer: (c)
80. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option. Now that I am back at work, (A) / I have beginning (B) / to feel much better. (C) / No error (D)
- (a) A
- (b) B
- (c) C
- (d) D
Show answer
Answer: (b)
81. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option. The artist, plainly a better critic (A) / than painter, destroyed what (B) / he made over for ten years. (C) / No error (D)
- (a) A
- (b) B
- (c) C
- (d) D
Show answer
Answer: (c)
82. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. Never give your friends _____________ .
- (a) the cold arm
- (b) the cold elbow
- (c) the cold shoulder
- (d) the cold hand
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Answer: (c)
83. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. My mother upset the kettle of boiling water and ____________ her hand.
- (a) scalded
- (b) scolded
- (c) scorched
- (d) wounded
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Answer: (a)
84. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. His writings are ___________ mistakes.
- (a) brooded with
- (b) burst into
- (c) replete with
- (d) boasted of
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Answer: (c)
85. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Cut a sorry figure
- (a) Did not stand straight
- (b) Apologised for his remarks
- (c) Created a wrong impression
- (d) Made a poor impression
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Answer: (d)
86. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. To take to task
- (a) Forgave him
- (b) Slapped him
- (c) Gave him extra work
- (d) Reprimanded him
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Answer: (d)
87. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Bring to light
- (a) Introduced
- (b) Revealed
- (c) Seen
- (d) Brought to life
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Answer: (b)
88. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. A job carrying no salary
- (a) Honorary
- (b) Memento
- (c) Honorarium
- (d) Memorandum
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Answer: (a)
89. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. Act of stealing something in small quantities
- (a) Pillage
- (b) Plagiarise
- (c) Proliferate
- (d) Pilferage
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Answer: (d)
90. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. Pertaining to the west
- (a) Celestial
- (b) Occidental
- (c) Oriental
- (d) Terrestrial
Show answer
Answer: (b)
PassageFor questions 96–100
A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. A knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one's mind is judged. Studying grammar means hard work: it must be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demands much thought and patience. But, once acquired, it can give a life-time's pleasure and profit. Its study requires no physical hardship, no special room or expenses. If people spent only their leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year. The author learned it in less than a year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no outside encouragement, then any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.
96. Why should we learn grammar?
- (a) To develop speaking skills
- (b) To develop writing skills
- (c) To have a mastery over language
- (d) To acquire good speaking and writing skills
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Answer: (d)
97. How does the world judge a man's mind?
- (a) By his dress
- (b) By his manners
- (c) By his appearance
- (d) By his speech and writing
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Answer: (d)
98. How long would it take to gain mastery over grammar?
- (a) One year
- (b) Six months
- (c) Two years
- (d) Ten months
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Answer: (a)
99. What is the occupation of the writer?
- (a) Teacher
- (b) Soldier
- (c) Artist
- (d) Clerk
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Answer: (b)
100. The learning of grammar should be
- (a) patient, thoughtful and holistic
- (b) thoughtful, patient and piecemeal
- (c) holistic, thoughtful and rapid
- (d) thoughtful, rapid and piecemeal
Show answer
Answer: (a)
Show answers
Answer key
Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.
General Intelligence and Reasoning
- Q 1
- (b)
- Q 2
- (d)
- Q 3
- (b)
- Q 4
- (a)
- Q 5
- (a)
- Q 6
- (a)
- Q 7
- (d)
- Q 8
- (b)
- Q 9
- (a)
- Q 10
- (d)
- Q 11
- (b)
- Q 12
- (b)
- Q 13
- (d)
- Q 15
- (c)
- Q 16
- (c)
- Q 17
- (d)
- Q 18
- (c)
- Q 25
- (c)
General Awareness
- Q 26
- (b)
- Q 27
- (c)
- Q 28
- (a)
- Q 29
- (b)
- Q 30
- (d)
- Q 31
- (a)
- Q 32
- (c)
- Q 33
- (a)
- Q 34
- (b)
- Q 35
- (c)
- Q 36
- (c)
- Q 37
- (a)
- Q 38
- (a)
- Q 39
- (b)
- Q 40
- (b)
- Q 41
- (b)
- Q 42
- (a)
- Q 43
- (a)
- Q 44
- (c)
- Q 45
- (d)
- Q 46
- (d)
- Q 47
- (c)
- Q 48
- (b)
- Q 49
- (a)
- Q 50
- (c)
Quantitative Aptitude
- Q 51
- (c)
- Q 53
- (a)
- Q 54
- (c)
- Q 55
- (c)
- Q 56
- (b)
- Q 57
- (b)
- Q 59
- (b)
- Q 60
- (c)
- Q 61
- (d)
- Q 62
- (a)
- Q 63
- (c)
- Q 64
- (c)
- Q 67
- (b)
- Q 68
- (c)
- Q 69
- (c)
- Q 70
- (c)
- Q 73
- (b)
- Q 74
- (b)
- Q 75
- (c)
English Comprehension
- Q 76
- (c)
- Q 77
- (a)
- Q 78
- (b)
- Q 79
- (c)
- Q 80
- (b)
- Q 81
- (c)
- Q 82
- (c)
- Q 83
- (a)
- Q 84
- (c)
- Q 85
- (d)
- Q 86
- (d)
- Q 87
- (b)
- Q 88
- (a)
- Q 89
- (d)
- Q 90
- (b)
- Q 96
- (d)
- Q 97
- (d)
- Q 98
- (a)
- Q 99
- (b)
- Q 100
- (a)