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ExamBharo · SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 1 September 2016, Shift 1 · exambharo.com/previous-year-papers/ssc-cgl-2016-tier-1-1-sep-shift-1/

Question paper · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2016 Tier I — 1 September 2016, Shift 1

1 September 2016 · 10:00 AM–11:15 AM81 of the paper’s 100 questions+2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one

19 questions of the original paper are not included: those that need a figure or formatting we cannot show, that have no answer in the response sheet, or that we could not check against a second copy of the paper.

Questions from the Staff Selection Commission’s paper of 1 September 2016, 10:00 AM–11:15 AM. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

  1. 1. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Psychology : Human Being :: Ornithology : ?

    • (a) Birds
    • (b) Volcanoes
    • (c) Insects
    • (d) Reptiles
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. EGIK : FHJL :: MOQS : ?

    • (a) LNOQ
    • (b) NPRT
    • (c) KMOQ
    • (d) NRPT
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 3. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 147 : 741 :: 869 : ?

    • (a) 896
    • (b) 968
    • (c) 689
    • (d) 986
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

    • (a) Herb
    • (b) Flower
    • (c) Tree
    • (d) Shrub
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  5. 5. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

    • (a) JKLM
    • (b) NOPQ
    • (c) RSTU
    • (d) VWXZ
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. For the following questions Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

    • (a) (85, 136)
    • (b) (34, 85)
    • (c) (102, 153)
    • (d) (63, 162)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary 1. Organ 2. Origin 3. Orient 4. Organic 5. Organise

    • (a) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
    • (b) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3
    • (c) 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
    • (d) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  8. 8. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? _sr_tr_srs_r_srst_

    • (a) ttssrr
    • (b) tsrtsr
    • (c) strtrs
    • (d) tstttr
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 9. Find the missing number in the following series: 43, 172, 86, 344, ?

    • (a) 172
    • (b) 258
    • (c) 129
    • (d) 430
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 10. 'A' is the sister of 'B'. 'B' is married to 'D'. 'B' and 'D' have a daughter 'G'. How is 'G' related to 'A'?

    • (a) Sister
    • (b) Daughter
    • (c) Niece
    • (d) Cousin
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 11. Anil is as much younger to Vivek as he is older to Tarun. If the total of the ages of Vivek and Tarun is 48 years, how old is Anil?

    • (a) 26
    • (b) 33
    • (c) 24
    • (d) 18
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 12. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: CHRONOLOGICAL

    • (a) CALL
    • (b) LOGIC
    • (c) CALICO
    • (d) ANALOGY
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 13. If HOUSE is written as FQSUC , then how can CHAIR be written in that code?

    • (a) DIBJS
    • (b) SBJID
    • (c) SHBGD
    • (d) AJYKP
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  14. 14. If P denotes ÷ , Q denotes x, R denotes + and S denotes - then what is the value of 18Q12P4R5S6

    • (a) 64
    • (b) 53
    • (c) 81
    • (d) 24
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 15. If 4 + 3 = 25 and 8 + 4 = 80 , then, 3 + 2 = ?

    • (a) 15
    • (b) 10
    • (c) 13
    • (d) 12
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 16. Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives

    • (a) 30
    • (b) 35
    • (c) 20
    • (d) 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  17. 17. Ramesh starts his journey by walking 2 kilometres towards North. Then he takes a right turn and walks 1 kilometre. Again takes a right turn and walks 2 kilometre. Now which direction is he facing?

    • (a) East
    • (b) West
    • (c) South
    • (d) North
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 18. Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Statement: Irregularity is a cause for failure in exams. Some regular students fail in the examinations. Conclusions: I. All failed students are regular. II. All successful students are not regular.

    • (a) Only conclusion I follows
    • (b) Only conclusion II follows
    • (c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
    • (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 25. In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., 'B' can be represented by 00, 13 etc., and 'A' can be represented by 55, 69 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word 'GIRL'

    • (a) 02, 56, 97, 24
    • (b) 31, 79, 68, 42
    • (c) 23, 97, 77, 11
    • (d) 11, 88, 95, 23
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

General Awareness

  1. 26. The minimum short-term natural hazard is __________ .

    • (a) blizzard
    • (b) earthquake
    • (c) volcanic eruption
    • (d) bolt of lightning
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 27. DOTS is a treatment given to patients suffering from _________ .

    • (a) Polio
    • (b) AIDS
    • (c) Hepatitis
    • (d) Tuberculosis
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 28. Which dynasty was ruling in Vijaynagar empire at the time of the Battle of Talikota?

    • (a) Sangam
    • (b) Aniridu
    • (c) Tuluva
    • (d) Saluva
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 29. Which of the following Sultans died while playing Polo or Chaugan?

    • (a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
    • (b) Balban
    • (c) Iltutmish
    • (d) Nasiruddin Muhammad
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  5. 30. Molten rock below the surface of the earth is called __________ .

    • (a) Basalt
    • (b) Laccolith
    • (c) Lava
    • (d) Magma
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 31. Magnesium is a constituent metal of __________ .

    • (a) Chlorophyll molecule
    • (b) DNA
    • (c) Mitochondria
    • (d) Ribosomes
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  7. 32. Which one among the following components is used as an amplifying device?

    • (a) Transformer
    • (b) Diode
    • (c) Capacitor
    • (d) Transistor
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 33. A __________ is an agreement between the communicating parties on how communication is to proceed.

    • (a) Path
    • (b) SLA
    • (c) Bond
    • (d) Protocol
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  9. 34. Name the gas used in preparation of bleaching powder

    • (a) Oxygen
    • (b) Hydrogen
    • (c) Nitrogen
    • (d) Chlorine
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 35. The depletion in Ozone layer is caused by ___________ .

    • (a) Nitrous oxide
    • (b) Carbon dioxide
    • (c) Chlorofluorocarbons
    • (d) Methane
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  11. 36. Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the following

    • (a) Lion
    • (b) Deer
    • (c) Tiger
    • (d) Bear
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 37. The prestigious 'Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding' is instituted by

    • (a) National Centre for Art and Culture
    • (b) Department of Youth and Sports
    • (c) Nehru Memorial Museum
    • (d) Indian Council for Cultural Relations
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  13. 38. Phosphorus is kept in water because

    • (a) its ignition temperature is very high
    • (b) its ignition temperature is very low
    • (c) its critical temperature is high
    • (d) its critical temperature is low
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  14. 39. The famous Dilwara temples of Mount Abu are a sacred pilgrimage place for the

    • (a) Buddhists
    • (b) Jains
    • (c) Sikhs
    • (d) Parsis
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 40. The unit of measurement of noise is

    • (a) Decibel
    • (b) Hertz
    • (c) Amplifier
    • (d) Acoustics
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. 41. The commonly used coolant in refrigerators is

    • (a) Ammonia
    • (b) Nitrogen
    • (c) Freon
    • (d) Oxygen
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 42. The complete form of 'IC' in electronics is

    • (a) Internal circuit
    • (b) Independent circuit
    • (c) Integrated circuit
    • (d) Inbuilt circuit
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  18. 43. Who among the following did Gandhiji regard as his political Guru?

    • (a) Mahadev Desai
    • (b) Dayanand Saraswati
    • (c) Acharya Narendra Dev
    • (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 44. Which of the following constitutional Amendment Act, deals with the Elementary Education as a Fundamental Right?

    • (a) 84th Amendment Act
    • (b) 85th Amendment Act
    • (c) 86th Amendment Act
    • (d) 87th Amendment Act
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  20. 45. The World's largest island is

    • (a) Greenland
    • (b) Iceland
    • (c) New Guinea
    • (d) Madagascar
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  21. 46. Sea water is saltier than rain water because

    • (a) Sea animals are salt producing
    • (b) The air around the sea is saltish
    • (c) Rivers wash away salts from earth and pour them into the sea
    • (d) Sea beds have salt producing mines
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 47. Pannalal Ghosh played which of the following musical instruments?

    • (a) Flute
    • (b) Sitar
    • (c) Violin
    • (d) Santoor
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  23. 48. Rio Summit is associated with

    • (a) Convention on Biological Diversity
    • (b) Green house gases
    • (c) Ozone depletion
    • (d) Wet lands
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 49. Polyploidy arises due to change in the

    • (a) number of chromatids
    • (b) structure of genes
    • (c) number of chromosomes
    • (d) structure of chromosomes
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  25. 50. Which South Korean author in May 2016 won the 2016 Man Booker International Prize for her novel 'The Vegetarian'?

    • (a) Han Kang
    • (b) Yiyun Li
    • (c) Tami Hoag
    • (d) Taya Zinkin
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

  1. 51. A and B together can finish a work in 30 days. They worked for it for 20 days and then B left the work. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 days more. In how many days can A alone finish the work?

    • (a) 48 days
    • (b) 50 days
    • (c) 54 days
    • (d) 60 days
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  2. 52. The centroid of an equilateral triangle ABC is G. If AB is 6 cms, the length of AG is

    • (a) √3 cm
    • (b) 2√3 cm
    • (c) 3√2 cm
    • (d) 2√2 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  3. 53. A merchant changed his trade discount from 25% to 15%. This would increase selling price by

    • (a) 3⅓%
    • (b) 6⅙%
    • (c) 13⅓%
    • (d) 16⅓%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 54. If 177 is divided into 3 parts in the ratio 1/2 : 2/3: 4/5, then the second part is

    • (a) 75
    • (b) 45
    • (c) 72
    • (d) 60
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 55. If percentage of profit made,when an article is sold for Rs.78, is twice as when it is sold for Rs.69, the cost price of the article is

    • (a) Rs. 49
    • (b) Rs. 51
    • (c) Rs. 57
    • (d) Rs. 60
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 57. Gautam travels 160 kms at 32 kmph and returns at 40 kmph. Then average speed is

    • (a) 72 kmph
    • (b) 71.11 kmph
    • (c) 36 kmph
    • (d) 35.55 kmph
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 58. If x=3/2, then the value of 27x3-54x2+36x-11 is

    • (a) 11⅜
    • (b) 11⅝
    • (c) 12⅜
    • (d) 12⅝
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  8. 59. If a+b+c = 6 and ab+bc+ca = 1, then the value of bc(b+c) + ca(c+a) +ab(a+b) +3abc is

    • (a) 33
    • (b) 66
    • (c) 55
    • (d) 23
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  9. 60. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2:3:4, then the difference of the measure of greatest angle and smallest angle is

    • (a) 20°
    • (b) 30°
    • (c) 40°
    • (d) 50°
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  10. 61. In ΔABC, ∠A = 90°, AD ┴ BC and AD = BD = 2 cm. The length of CD is

    • (a) 3 cm
    • (b) 3.5 cm
    • (c) 3.2 cm
    • (d) 2 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 63. (251 + 252+253+254+255) is divisible by

    • (a) 23
    • (b) 58
    • (c) 124
    • (d) 127
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  12. 64. The average of 12 numbers is 9. If each number is multiplied by 2 and added to 3, the average of the new set of numbers is

    • (a) 9
    • (b) 18
    • (c) 21
    • (d) 27
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 67. The perimeter of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 36 cms and 24 cms respectively. If PQ = 10 cm then the length of AB is

    • (a) 18 cm
    • (b) 12 cm
    • (c) 15 cm
    • (d) 30 cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 68. In a triangle ABC, AB = 8 cm, AC = 10 cm and ∠B = 90°, then the area of ΔABC is ABC

    • (a) 49 sq.cm
    • (b) 36 sq.cm
    • (c) 25 sq.cm
    • (d) 24 sq.cm
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  15. 70. The compound interest on Rs. 64,000 for 3 years, compounded annually at 7.5% p.a. is

    • (a) Rs. 14,400
    • (b) Rs. 15,705
    • (c) Rs. 15,507
    • (d) Rs. 15,075
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  16. 71. The angles of elevation of the top of a temple, from the foot and the top of a building 30 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. Then height of the temple is

    • (a) 50 m
    • (b) 43 m
    • (c) 40 m
    • (d) 45 m
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  17. 72. Study the pie-chart given and answer the following questions. If the miscellaneous charges are Rs. 6000, then the advertisement charges are

    • (a) Rs.12000
    • (b) Rs.27000
    • (c) Rs.90000
    • (d) Rs.25000
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

English Comprehension

  1. 76. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it. RECEPTACLE

    • (a) COMPARTMENT
    • (b) HOLE
    • (c) CONTAINER
    • (d) FUNNEL
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  2. 77. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it. VANITY

    • (a) PRIDE
    • (b) LOVE
    • (c) COURAGE
    • (d) HUMILITY
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  3. 78. Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

    • (a) Acquisision
    • (b) Acqiusition
    • (c) Acquisition
    • (d) Acquisetion
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  4. 79. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. If you permit me to speak the truth (A) / I shall state without hesitation (B) / that you have done a mistake (C) / No Error (D)

    • (a) A
    • (b) B
    • (c) C
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  5. 80. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. I succeeded persuading him (A) / to come with me (B) / only after hours of argument (C) / No Error (D)

    • (a) A
    • (b) B
    • (c) C
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  6. 81. In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option. Vermin (A) / does much harm (B) / to crops (C) / No Error (D)

    • (a) A
    • (b) B
    • (c) C
    • (d) D
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  7. 82. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. Light is _____ than sound.

    • (a) faster
    • (b) more faster
    • (c) sounder
    • (d) lighter
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  8. 83. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. The man _____ for the purpose never did what was expected of him.

    • (a) supplied
    • (b) favoured
    • (c) employed
    • (d) cited
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 84. The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. There was a serious _____ between the two brothers.

    • (a) altercation
    • (b) alteration
    • (c) aberration
    • (d) altieration
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  10. 85. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. To give oneself airs

    • (a) Space to breathe
    • (b) Time
    • (c) Acting strange
    • (d) Behaving arrogantly
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  11. 86. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. At a stone's throw

    • (a) At a short distance
    • (b) At a place where quarrels take place
    • (c) At a great distance
    • (d) A quarry
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  12. 87. In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it. Bone of contention

    • (a) A delicious non-vegetarian item
    • (b) An item which made them content
    • (c) Cause for quarrel
    • (d) A link between them
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 88. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. A person who has lost the protection of the law

    • (a) Outlaw
    • (b) Immigrant
    • (c) Outcast
    • (d) Orphan
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  14. 89. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. Falsification of documents etc.

    • (a) Xeroxing
    • (b) Forgery
    • (c) Laminating
    • (d) Copying
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  15. 90. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it. To make atonement for one's sins

    • (a) Expiate
    • (b) Renounce
    • (c) Remonstrate
    • (d) Recant
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  16. PassageFor questions 96–100

    Settled life and cultivation gave man leisure; he had no longer to always think of getting food. During spare time he could make stone tools, hoes or pots and weave cloth. Some people spared from producing their own food could even devote themselves to other activities all the time. This resulted in a division of labour. The division of labour made it possible for various groups to specialize, that is, to acquire greater skill and learn better techniques in doing one kind of work. The settled community life needed rules to regulate the behaviour of the members of the community. It is not possible to know exactly how regulations were established. It appears that the decisions regarding the community were taken by the people as a whole, or by a council of elders, as is in the practice in tribal societies. There were perhaps no kings or any organized government. Most likely, there were chiefs elected by the community for their qualities of leadership. But, these chiefs could not pass their positions on to their sons and they enjoyed few special privileges. Archaeological excavations have not revealed anything which would indicate the prevalence of a higher status for some members of the community. This is also supported by the study of life in many tribes in modern times. Thus, social inequalities do not seem to have emerged even in Neolithic times.

  17. 96. What did man do in his spare time?

    • (a) Made stone tools
    • (b) Made hoes or pots
    • (c) Weave cloth
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 97. In the passage, "division of labour" means?

    • (a) Specialization to acquire greater skills
    • (b) Learning arithmetic
    • (c) Working in groups
    • (d) Working from home
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  19. 98. To which period do the Neolithic times refer:

    • (a) Later part of the Stone Age
    • (b) Early part of the Stone Age
    • (c) Later part of the Ice Age
    • (d) Medieval times
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 99. Chiefs were elected by the community for their

    • (a) age
    • (b) qualities of leadership
    • (c) responsibility and courage
    • (d) trust and loyalty
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  21. 100. The meaning of 'privilege' is

    • (a) allowance
    • (b) favour
    • (c) benefit
    • (d) interest
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key as marked in the Staff Selection Commission’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(b)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(b)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(c)
Q 8
(d)
Q 9
(a)
Q 10
(c)
Q 11
(c)
Q 12
(d)
Q 13
(d)
Q 14
(b)
Q 15
(c)
Q 16
(b)
Q 17
(c)
Q 18
(d)
Q 25
(c)

General Awareness

Q 26
(d)
Q 27
(d)
Q 28
(c)
Q 29
(a)
Q 30
(d)
Q 31
(a)
Q 32
(d)
Q 33
(d)
Q 34
(d)
Q 35
(c)
Q 36
(c)
Q 37
(d)
Q 38
(b)
Q 39
(b)
Q 40
(a)
Q 41
(c)
Q 42
(c)
Q 43
(d)
Q 44
(c)
Q 45
(a)
Q 46
(c)
Q 47
(a)
Q 48
(a)
Q 49
(c)
Q 50
(a)

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 51
(d)
Q 52
(b)
Q 53
(c)
Q 54
(d)
Q 55
(d)
Q 57
(d)
Q 58
(d)
Q 59
(b)
Q 60
(c)
Q 61
(d)
Q 63
(c)
Q 64
(c)
Q 67
(c)
Q 68
(d)
Q 70
(c)
Q 71
(d)
Q 72
(b)

English Comprehension

Q 76
(c)
Q 77
(d)
Q 78
(c)
Q 79
(c)
Q 80
(a)
Q 81
(b)
Q 82
(a)
Q 83
(c)
Q 84
(a)
Q 85
(d)
Q 86
(a)
Q 87
(c)
Q 88
(a)
Q 89
(b)
Q 90
(a)
Q 96
(d)
Q 97
(a)
Q 98
(a)
Q 99
(b)
Q 100
(c)