Verified against official sourcesVerifiedLast updated

ExamBharo

Type to search · Esc to close

ExamBharo · UP PGT 2016 — Commerce (Series A) · exambharo.com/up-pgt/previous-year-papers/up-pgt-2016-commerce-series-a/

Question paper · UP PGT

UP PGT 2016 — Commerce (Series A)

1 or 2 February 2019125 questions+3.4 for a correct answer, −0 for a wrong one

Questions from the U.P. Secondary Education Services Selection Board’s paper of 1 or 2 February 2019. Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.

The official booklet is a scan with no text, so ExamBharo typed this paper from it by hand. A typing slip is possible; report one through the contact page.

The board deleted question 106 in its final answer key: shown here, with no answer, and not counted in the score.

Commerce

  1. 1. Planning, organising, directing and controlling are the

    • (a) functions of management
    • (b) goals of management
    • (c) results of management
    • (d) all of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  2. 2. The division of labour by grouping people and material resources into regional groups deals with

    • (a) specialization
    • (b) coordination
    • (c) divisionalization
    • (d) goal setting
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  3. 3. Number of principles of management as laid down by Henry Fayol is

    • (a) 12
    • (b) 14
    • (c) 16
    • (d) 20
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  4. 4. The elements of coordination are

    • (a) Group effort
    • (b) Unity of action
    • (c) Common purpose
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  5. 5. The economic environment of a business includes

    • (a) Economic system
    • (b) Economic policies
    • (c) Economic conditions
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  6. 6. Managerial skill includes

    • (a) Technical skill
    • (b) Diagnostic skill
    • (c) Political skill
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  7. 7. ____ is the set of mechanisms used in an organization to link the actions of its subunits into a consistent pattern.

    • (a) Departmentation
    • (b) Coordination
    • (c) Control
    • (d) Formal authority
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  8. 8. Henry Fayol divided the administrative activities into

    • (a) Two groups
    • (b) Four groups
    • (c) Six groups
    • (d) Eight groups
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  9. 9. Elements of cost are

    • (a) Material
    • (b) Labour
    • (c) Expenses
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  10. 10. Under Management Reporting System Control Reports and Information Reports are a part of

    • (a) Financial Reports
    • (b) Operating Reports
    • (c) Both Financial Reports and Operating Reports
    • (d) None of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  11. 11. Amount set aside to meet losses due to bad debits is a

    • (a) reserve
    • (b) provision
    • (c) liability
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  12. 12. If the proposed dividend is 20% the percentage of profits to be transferred to reserve is :

    • (a) 2.5%
    • (b) 5%
    • (c) 7.5%
    • (d) 10%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  13. 13. Stock appearing-in the Trial Balance is shown in

    • (a) Trading Account
    • (b) Profit and Loss Account
    • (c) Balance Sheet
    • (d) Trading Account and Balance Sheet
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  14. 14. On the admission of a new partner if the partners decide to record change in values of assets and liabilities in books but not in accounts, the firm prepares

    • (a) Memorandum Revaluation Account
    • (b) Revaluation Account
    • (c) Profit and Loss Adjustment Account
    • (d) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  15. 15. As per the rule of Garner V. Murray, the deficiency of the insolvent partner is shared by the solvent partners in their

    • (a) Profit sharing Ratio
    • (b) Capital Ratio
    • (c) Current Account Ratio
    • (d) Equal Ratio
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  16. 16. Which one is the principle of ‘double entry system’ ?

    • (a) Purchase increases debit, income decreases credit
    • (b) Expense increases debit, income decreases credit
    • (c) Receiver is debit, giver is credit
    • (d) Receiver is credit, giver is debit
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  17. 17. Income tax on interest, dividends and rent should be

    • (a) Debited to Profit and Loss Account
    • (b) Debited to Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
    • (c) Debited to provision for taxation
    • (d) None of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  18. 18. The portion of uncalled amount of capital that can be called up only on winding up of the company is known as

    • (a) Authorised capital
    • (b) Issued capital
    • (c) Subscribed capital
    • (d) Reserve capital
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  19. 19. On dissolution of a firm, an unrecorded liability is

    • (a) Debited to Realisation Account
    • (b) Credited to Realisation Account
    • (c) Credited to Liability Account
    • (d) Debited to Revaluation Account
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  20. 20. In the calculation of net profit of ₹ 15,00,000 for the period, ₹ 20,000 profit on sale of an asset and ₹ 10,000 depreciation have been taken into consideration. In this case funds from operations will be

    • (a) ₹ 15,00,000
    • (b) ₹ 15,30,000
    • (c) ₹ 14,90,000
    • (d) ₹ 15,10,000
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  21. 21. Share premium money can be used for

    • (a) Payment of dividend
    • (b) Writing off goodwill
    • (c) Issue of fully paid bonus shares
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  22. 22. Prime cost is ₹ 16,000. Material is 60% of labour. Labour is

    • (a) ₹ 5,000
    • (b) ₹ 6,000
    • (c) ₹ 10,000
    • (d) none
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  23. 23. An ordinarily resident is who follows :

    • (a) both basic and additional conditions
    • (b) only basic conditions
    • (c) only additional condition
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  24. 24. Agriculture income includes

    • (a) Income from sale of crop
    • (b) Income from preparing the agricultural produce saleable
    • (c) Income from gardening
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  25. 25. Which among the following is not a technique of business forecasting ?

    • (a) Trend Analysis
    • (b) Correlation Analysis
    • (c) Time Series Analysis
    • (d) Regression Analysis
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  26. 26. Internal Management Reports are useful for

    • (a) Top level managers
    • (b) Functional managers
    • (c) Operating managers
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  27. 27. At Break-Even point, contribution is equal to

    • (a) Variable cost
    • (b) Fixed cost
    • (c) Total cost
    • (d) Sales price
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  28. 28. The person who bears a risk to produce goods or services to earn profit is called

    • (a) Entrepreneur
    • (b) Professional
    • (c) Trader
    • (d) Investor
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  29. 29. Education cess of 3% is payable on :

    • (a) Income tax
    • (b) Income tax plus surcharge
    • (c) Surcharge
    • (d) None of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  30. 30. Indifference curve is the combination of two goods that are

    • (a) Complementary goods
    • (b) Substitute goods
    • (c) Not related with each other
    • (d) Related to two different people
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  31. 31. If correlation coefficient between two variables is uncertain, it implies that

    • (a) r = +1
    • (b) r = −1
    • (c) r = 0
    • (d) r = 0.5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  32. 32. We should expect negative correlation while studying relationship between

    • (a) income and expenditure of family
    • (b) price and demand of a product
    • (c) sales and profits of a company
    • (d) none of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  33. 33. If marginal utility is zero then

    • (a) Total utility is zero
    • (b) An additional unit of consumption will decrease total utility
    • (c) An additional unit of consumption will increase total utility
    • (d) Total utility is maximised
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  34. 34. Which is not the part of business cycle ?

    • (a) Boom
    • (b) Depression
    • (c) Recovery
    • (d) Acceleration
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  35. 35. From the following data, calculate P/V ratio. Sales Profit 2017 ₹ 50,000 ₹ 5,000 2018 ₹ 75,000 ₹ 10,000

    • (a) 15%
    • (b) 20%
    • (c) 18%
    • (d) 16%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  36. 36. Classification of the students of a college in two categories ‘rural’ and ‘urban’ is called

    • (a) Qualitative classification
    • (b) Quantitative classification
    • (c) Geographical classification
    • (d) None of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  37. 37. If in a year, the gross fiscal deficit of a Government is ₹ 3,00,000 crore, revenue deficit is ₹ 1,50,000 crore and interest payments are ₹ 80,000 crore, then the primary deficit of the Government in the year is :

    • (a) ₹ 23,000 crore
    • (b) ₹ 45,000 crore
    • (c) ₹ 70,000 crore
    • (d) ₹ 2,20,000 crore
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  38. 38. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called :

    • (a) double account system
    • (b) double entry system
    • (c) single entry system
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  39. 39. According to the money measurement concept, which among the following will be recorded in the books of account of the business :

    • (a) health of managing director of the company
    • (b) quality of company’s goods
    • (c) value of plant and machinery
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  40. 40. Bill of lading is issued by

    • (a) Shipping company
    • (b) Exporter
    • (c) Port Trust Authority
    • (d) Importer
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  41. 41. A prospectus for inviting subscription in shares or debentures can be issued only by

    • (a) Public Company
    • (b) Private Company
    • (c) Both of the above
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  42. 42. National Income can be measured by

    • (a) Expenditure Method
    • (b) Income Method
    • (c) Production Method
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  43. 43. In the long run, the cost and output relationship depends on :

    • (a) return to scale
    • (b) fixed proportion of the variables
    • (c) return to the variable factors
    • (d) return to the fixed factors
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  44. 44. The theory that supply creates its own demand and therefore full employment is a natural situation is concerned with :

    • (a) Say’s law
    • (b) Pigou’s law of employment
    • (c) Giffen’s paradox
    • (d) Keynesian theory of employment
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  45. 45. According to the classical theory of employment, deviations from the state of full employment are of

    • (a) permanent nature
    • (b) purely temporary
    • (c) imaginary situations
    • (d) normal situations
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  46. 46. In which sampling the entire population is segmented into mutually exclusive groups ?

    • (a) Convenience sampling
    • (b) Quota sampling
    • (c) Judgment sampling
    • (d) Snowball sampling
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  47. 47. The sampling error is inversely proportional to the

    • (a) Sample size
    • (b) Population size
    • (c) Systematic error
    • (d) Sampling frame error
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  48. 48. In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed ?

    • (a) Judgemental forecast
    • (b) Time series forecast
    • (c) Associative forecast
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  49. 49. A report that accumulates information about entire organisation and serves the interest of outsiders as well is called

    • (a) Enterprise report
    • (b) Control report
    • (c) Investigation report
    • (d) Budget report
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  50. 50. The balance of trade was favourable to India in :

    • (a) 1970-71 and 1974-75
    • (b) 1972-73 and 1976-77
    • (c) 1972-73 and 1975-76
    • (d) 1971-72 and 1976-77
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  51. 51. On the admission of a new partner, any increase in the value of Buildings is credited to

    • (a) Buildings Account
    • (b) Profit and Loss Account
    • (c) Revaluation Account
    • (d) All Partners’ Capital Account
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  52. 52. The main objective of Cost Accounting is to

    • (a) Maximise profits of the organisation
    • (b) Determine the selling price of goods and services
    • (c) Provide information to management for decision making
    • (d) Help in valuation of inventory of finished goods
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  53. 53. If a share of ₹ 10 each on which ₹ 8 has been called and ₹ 6 is paid is forfeited then, the share capital account should be debited with

    • (a) ₹ 10
    • (b) ₹ 8
    • (c) ₹ 6
    • (d) ₹ 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  54. 54. The use of LIFO method is suitable when prices are

    • (a) Falling
    • (b) Rising
    • (c) Constant
    • (d) In all of the above conditions
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  55. 55. The maximum number of partners in case of an ordinary partnership firm should not exceed

    • (a) 10
    • (b) 20
    • (c) 30
    • (d) 40
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  56. 56. The limit of investment in plant and machinery to be classified as a small-scale industry is

    • (a) Rs. 35 lakhs
    • (b) 5 crores
    • (c) 70 lakhs
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  57. 57. In India, Census is conducted by

    • (a) National Sample Survey Organisation
    • (b) Central Statistical Organisation
    • (c) Registrar General and Census Commissioner
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  58. 58. General principles of reporting are

    • (a) Comparison
    • (b) Consistency
    • (c) Correctness
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  59. 59. The duty which is imposed on import and export of goods is called

    • (a) Excise duty
    • (b) Custom duty
    • (c) Purchase and Sale duty
    • (d) Trade duty
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  60. 60. The most precise test of liquidity is

    • (a) Quick ratio
    • (b) Current ratio
    • (c) Absolute liquid ratio
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  61. 61. Which among the following is not an element of staffing process ?

    • (a) Human Resource Planning
    • (b) Recruitment and Selection
    • (c) Payroll Management
    • (d) Job Evaluation of Employees
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  62. 62. Which one of the following indices satisfies both time reversal and factor reversal test ?

    • (a) Laspeyre’s index number
    • (b) Fisher’s index number
    • (c) Paasche’s index number
    • (d) Kelly’s index number
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  63. 63. The major goals for most organizations are

    • (a) societal, personal and output
    • (b) societal, output and systems
    • (c) personal and impersonal
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  64. 64. A major distinction between line and staff units concerns

    • (a) the amount of resources each is allowed to utilize
    • (b) linkage of their jobs to the goals of the firm
    • (c) their linkage to the outside world
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  65. 65. Control involves all but

    • (a) measuring results
    • (b) establishing goals
    • (c) taking corrective action
    • (d) selecting Human Resource
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  66. 66. Which of the following account will be debited if purchases of goods are made on credit ?

    • (a) Cash
    • (b) Debtor
    • (c) Creditor
    • (d) Purchases
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  67. 67. The written agreement between the partners is called

    • (a) Memorandum of Association
    • (b) Articles of Association
    • (c) Partnership Deed
    • (d) Certificate of Registration
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  68. 68. Written statements of organizational purpose are called

    • (a) mission statements
    • (b) formalization
    • (c) formal organization charts
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  69. 69. The division of labour through the formation of work units or groups within an organisation is called

    • (a) control
    • (b) vertical specialization
    • (c) horizontal specialization
    • (d) coordination
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  70. 70. The set of mechanisms used to keep actions and outputs within predetermined limits is called

    • (a) coordination
    • (b) vertical specialization
    • (c) control
    • (d) formalization
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  71. 71. Which among the following is an essential step in organising process ?

    • (a) Establishment of planning premises
    • (b) Delegation of authority
    • (c) Internal co-ordination
    • (d) Job evaluation
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  72. 72. Which of the following is the advantage of sole proprietorship ?

    • (a) Ease in formation
    • (b) Flexibility in operations
    • (c) Minimum regulations
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  73. 73. Dividends are usually paid on

    • (a) paid up capital
    • (b) authorised capital
    • (c) called up capital
    • (d) issued capital
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  74. 74. Securities premium reserve account is shown on the liabilities side in the balance sheet under the heading

    • (a) reserves and surplus
    • (b) current liabilities and provisions
    • (c) share capital
    • (d) all of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  75. 75. Indicate the item that appears in the surplus account

    • (a) proposed dividend
    • (b) provision for taxation
    • (c) contribution to provident fund
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  76. 76. If Goods worth ₹ 10,000 are sold on the basis of sale on approval, the adjustment of this transaction on the date of accounting is done in

    • (a) Sales
    • (b) Stock
    • (c) Debtors
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  77. 77. On the dissolution of firm, its assets are transferred to realization account at

    • (a) Book value
    • (b) Market value
    • (c) Book value or Market value (Whichever is less)
    • (d) Realizable value
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  78. 78. An adjustment entry for prepaid expenses affects

    • (a) Assets and Expenses
    • (b) Assets and Income
    • (c) Liabilities and Expenses
    • (d) Liabilities and Assets
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  79. 79. Debenture holders are

    • (a) Creditors
    • (b) Owners
    • (c) Customers
    • (d) Regulators
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  80. 80. After redemption of debentures, the balance of Debenture Redemption Reserve Account is transferred to

    • (a) Capital Reserve Account
    • (b) General Reserve Account
    • (c) Sinking Fund Account
    • (d) Profit and Loss Account
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  81. 81. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited with

    • (a) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
    • (b) Called up amount of forfeited shares
    • (c) Uncalled amount of forfeited shares
    • (d) Face value of forfeited shares
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  82. 82. Net profit before following adjustment is ₹ 3,60,000 Outstanding salary is ₹ 20,000 Prepaid insurance is ₹ 26,000 After adjustment net profit is

    • (a) ₹ 3,66,000
    • (b) ₹ 3,80,000
    • (c) ₹ 3,46,000
    • (d) ₹ 3,86,000
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  83. 83. The ‘going concern concept’ is the underlying basis for

    • (a) Depreciating fixed assets over their useful life
    • (b) Consolidating the accounts of subsidiary companies with their parent companies
    • (c) Disclosing the market value of securities
    • (d) Disclosing the sales and other operating information in the income statement
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  84. 84. The profit sharing ratio of ABC is 1/2, 2/5, 1/10. After retirement of A, remaining partners’ ratio will be

    • (a) 4 : 1
    • (b) 5 : 1
    • (c) 3 : 1
    • (d) 2 : 1
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  85. 85. Allotment of overhead to cost unit is called

    • (a) Cost Allocation
    • (b) Cost Apportionment
    • (c) Cost Absorption
    • (d) Cost Classification
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  86. 86. Which method of costing is used in hospitals ?

    • (a) Unit costing
    • (b) Operating costing
    • (c) Multiple costing
    • (d) Job costing
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  87. 87. Non agricultural income includes

    • (a) Income from sale of wild grass
    • (b) Income from fisheries
    • (c) Royalty income of mines
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  88. 88. If selling price is ₹ 10; variable cost per unit is ₹ 6 and total fixed costs are ₹ 48,000 then the Break Even Point will be

    • (a) ₹ 72,000
    • (b) ₹ 96,000
    • (c) ₹ 1,20,000
    • (d) ₹ 1,60,000
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  89. 89. If the current ratio of a firm is 2.5 : 1 and working capital is ₹ 90,000 then the amount of current liabilities will be

    • (a) ₹ 2,25,000
    • (b) ₹ 1,35,000
    • (c) ₹ 60,000
    • (d) ₹ 36,000
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  90. 90. Which among the following is not a business forecasting technique ?

    • (a) Budgeting
    • (b) Profit planning
    • (c) Determining the cost standards
    • (d) Presenting financial statements
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  91. 91. Determining the tax liability is called

    • (a) assessment
    • (b) scrutiny
    • (c) enquiry
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  92. 92. The subject matter of Macro Economics includes

    • (a) National Income
    • (b) International Trade
    • (c) Trade Cycle
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  93. 93. Correlation coefficient is a measure of

    • (a) relationship between two variables
    • (b) linear relationship between two variables
    • (c) independence between two variables
    • (d) dependence between two variables
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  94. 94. Which type of data is not suited for calculation of Pearson correlation coefficient ?

    • (a) nominal
    • (b) ordinal
    • (c) interval
    • (d) ratio
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  95. 95. Gross profit ratio is calculated by

    • (a) (Gross Profit/Gross Sales) × 100
    • (b) (Gross Profit/Net Sales) × 100
    • (c) (Net Profit/Gross Sales) × 100
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  96. 96. Which among the following is a non economic activity ?

    • (a) Business
    • (b) Service
    • (c) Charity
    • (d) Profession
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  97. 97. In management, policy formulation is a part of

    • (a) Planning
    • (b) Directing
    • (c) Coordinating
    • (d) Controlling
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  98. 98. The limits of Karl Pearson’s correlation coefficient are

    • (a) ± 1
    • (b) ± 2
    • (c) ± 3
    • (d) None of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  99. 99. When Goods are imported for the purpose of export, it is called

    • (a) Import
    • (b) Export
    • (c) Entrepot
    • (d) Foreign Trade
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  100. 100. What is the theory that opening a country to world markets gives an opportunity to utilize unemployed and underemployed resources known as

    • (a) Ricardian theory
    • (b) Heckscher-ohlin theory
    • (c) Vent-for-surplus theory
    • (d) Strategic trade theory
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  101. 101. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in pursuant to

    • (a) convention of consistency
    • (b) money measurement concept
    • (c) convention of conservatism
    • (d) convention of disclosure
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  102. 102. The convention of conservatism is applicable in :

    • (a) providing for discount on creditors
    • (b) making provision for bad and doubtful debts
    • (c) creating reserve for financial stability
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  103. 103. If a share of ₹ 10, on which ₹ 6 has been paid, is forfeited, it can be reissued at a minimum price of :

    • (a) ₹ 6 per share
    • (b) ₹ 4 per share
    • (c) ₹ 10 per share
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  104. 104. According to Malthus population grows

    • (a) Arithmetically
    • (b) Geometrically
    • (c) At constant rate
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  105. 105. Production function is the relation of

    • (a) Cost and Profit
    • (b) Input and Output
    • (c) Profit and Loss
    • (d) Price and Demand
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  106. 106. A perfect correlation is signified by

    • (a) 0
    • (b) − 1
    • (c) + 1
    • (d) −1 to + 1
    Show answer

    Answer: —

  107. 107. Index for base period is always taken as

    • (a) 0
    • (b) 100
    • (c) 200
    • (d) 1000
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  108. 108. If Laspeyre’s Index No. is 121 and Paasche’s Index No. is 144 then Fisher’s Index No. is

    • (a) 137.5
    • (b) 213.8
    • (c) 321
    • (d) 132
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  109. 109. The absolute value of the difference between an unbiased point estimate and the corresponding population parameter is known as a

    • (a) Population error
    • (b) Standard error
    • (c) Sampling error
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  110. 110. Questionnaire survey method is used to collect

    • (a) Tertiary data
    • (b) Secondary data
    • (c) Primary data
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  111. 111. Earned, but not yet received income is treated as

    • (a) Assets
    • (b) Liability
    • (c) Loss
    • (d) Capital
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  112. 112. Advanced money received from a customer for supply of goods in future is a/an

    • (a) Income
    • (b) Expense
    • (c) Current Liability
    • (d) Current Asset
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  113. 113. Sales budget is a

    • (a) functional budget
    • (b) master budget
    • (c) expenditure budget
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  114. 114. The difference between fixed and variable cost has a special significance in the preparation of

    • (a) flexible budget
    • (b) master budget
    • (c) cash budget
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (a)

  115. 115. If machine hours are 8000 and factory overhead absorption rate per machine hour is ₹ 8, then the absorbed factory overheads will be

    • (a) ₹ 1,000
    • (b) ₹ 8,000
    • (c) ₹ 64,000
    • (d) ₹ 7,992
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  116. 116. Accounting principles are based on

    • (a) Practicability
    • (b) Subjectivity
    • (c) Convenience in recording
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  117. 117. The relationship between liquidity and risk is

    • (a) direct
    • (b) inverse
    • (c) no relationship
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  118. 118. The limit of maximum number of members in a private company is :

    • (a) 20
    • (b) 200
    • (c) 500
    • (d) none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  119. 119. National sample survey organisation conducts surveys on

    • (a) Socio-Economic Subjects
    • (b) Agricultural and Industrial Subjects
    • (c) Demographic issues
    • (d) All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

  120. 120. If the value of any regression coefficient is zero, then two variables are

    • (a) Dependent
    • (b) Independent
    • (c) Correlated
    • (d) Qualitative
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  121. 121. Management Accounting deals with

    • (a) Quantitative information
    • (b) Qualitative information
    • (c) Both the (A) and (B)
    • (d) None of the (A) and (B)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  122. 122. A wholesaler as an intermediary is a link between

    • (a) Manufacturer and Consumer
    • (b) Manufacturer and Stockist
    • (c) Manufacturer and Retailer
    • (d) Retailer and Customer
    Show answer

    Answer: (c)

  123. 123. Which one of the following index number is based on geometric mean ?

    • (a) Laspeyre’s index number
    • (b) Fisher’s index number
    • (c) Paasche’s index number
    • (d) Bowley’s index number
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  124. 124. When average cost falls, as a result of increase in output the marginal cost is

    • (a) More than average cost
    • (b) Less than average cost
    • (c) Equal to average cost
    • (d) None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (b)

  125. 125. Which of the following is not a non-tariff barrier ?

    • (a) Voluntary export restraint
    • (b) Health and product standards
    • (c) Environment protection laws
    • (d) Ad-valorem duties
    Show answer

    Answer: (d)

Show answers

Answer key

Answer key from the U.P. Secondary Education Services Selection Board’s official answer key for this sitting. “—” means the key gave none: the question was deleted.

Commerce

Q 1
(a)
Q 2
(c)
Q 3
(b)
Q 4
(d)
Q 5
(d)
Q 6
(d)
Q 7
(b)
Q 8
(c)
Q 9
(d)
Q 10
(b)
Q 11
(b)
Q 12
(c)
Q 13
(c)
Q 14
(a)
Q 15
(b)
Q 16
(c)
Q 17
(d)
Q 18
(d)
Q 19
(a)
Q 20
(c)
Q 21
(c)
Q 22
(c)
Q 23
(a)
Q 24
(d)
Q 25
(b)
Q 26
(d)
Q 27
(b)
Q 28
(a)
Q 29
(b)
Q 30
(b)
Q 31
(c)
Q 32
(b)
Q 33
(d)
Q 34
(d)
Q 35
(b)
Q 36
(a)
Q 37
(d)
Q 38
(b)
Q 39
(c)
Q 40
(a)
Q 41
(a)
Q 42
(d)
Q 43
(a)
Q 44
(a)
Q 45
(b)
Q 46
(b)
Q 47
(a)
Q 48
(b)
Q 49
(a)
Q 50
(b)
Q 51
(c)
Q 52
(c)
Q 53
(b)
Q 54
(b)
Q 55
(b)
Q 56
(b)
Q 57
(c)
Q 58
(d)
Q 59
(b)
Q 60
(c)
Q 61
(c)
Q 62
(b)
Q 63
(b)
Q 64
(b)
Q 65
(d)
Q 66
(d)
Q 67
(c)
Q 68
(a)
Q 69
(c)
Q 70
(c)
Q 71
(b)
Q 72
(d)
Q 73
(a)
Q 74
(a)
Q 75
(a)
Q 76
(d)
Q 77
(a)
Q 78
(a)
Q 79
(a)
Q 80
(b)
Q 81
(b)
Q 82
(a)
Q 83
(a)
Q 84
(a)
Q 85
(a)
Q 86
(b)
Q 87
(d)
Q 88
(c)
Q 89
(c)
Q 90
(d)
Q 91
(a)
Q 92
(d)
Q 93
(b)
Q 94
(a)
Q 95
(b)
Q 96
(c)
Q 97
(a)
Q 98
(a)
Q 99
(c)
Q 100
(c)
Q 101
(d)
Q 102
(b)
Q 103
(b)
Q 104
(b)
Q 105
(b)
Q 106
—
Q 107
(b)
Q 108
(d)
Q 109
(c)
Q 110
(c)
Q 111
(a)
Q 112
(c)
Q 113
(a)
Q 114
(a)
Q 115
(c)
Q 116
(c)
Q 117
(b)
Q 118
(b)
Q 119
(d)
Q 120
(b)
Q 121
(c)
Q 122
(c)
Q 123
(b)
Q 124
(b)
Q 125
(d)