CTET Paper II — 7 February 2026 (Set Z) — Social Studies

1. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : The purpose of administering intelligence tests and extended observation should be to compare children in specific domains and abilities. Reason (R) : Intelligence is an innate ability and cannot be nurtured. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (b) A is true but R is false.
• (c) Both A and R are false.
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. A teacher who consciously takes examples of scientists of all genders in her middle school classroom is trying to—

• (a) reinforce gender discrimination.
• (b) enable gender identity.
• (c) construct gender constancy.
• (d) break gender stereotypes.

3. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : All girls are hardworking and sincere while boys are intelligent and dominating. Reason (R) : Two distinctive biological brains produce all differences in physical and cognitive skills as well as personalities and temperament in girls and boys. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (b) A is true but R is false.
• (c) Both A and R are false.
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Individual differences in learning preferences of students should be seen as—

• (a) cognitive abnormality among some children.
• (b) developmental deficits among some children.
• (c) normal depiction of diversity.
• (d) abnormal parameter of their differing IQ levels.

5. The kind of assessment in which a student’s scores are compared with the average performance of other students is called

• (a) format-referenced.
• (b) norm-referenced.
• (c) self-referenced.
• (d) criteria-referenced.

6. Which of the following statements about classroom assessment are correct? (i) Assessments should influence the students’ cognitive processes while they study. (ii) Assessments should serve as learning experiences in themselves. (iii) Assessments should create fear and stress among students to get them to learn. (iv) Assessments should be standardized and norm-referenced. Choose the correct option.

• (a) (i), (ii)
• (b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
• (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
• (d) (i), (iii)

7. Which of the following questions would promote higher-order critical and analytical thinking skills among the students?

• (a) Identify the nouns mentioned in a specific newspaper article.
• (b) Read the newspaper articles and make a list of new words.
• (c) Read the newspaper article and think of a suitable title.
• (d) Identify the assumptions underlying two newspaper articles depicting the same event.

8. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Students with poor writing abilities are often stereotyped by their teachers as ‘intellectually disabled’. Reason (R) : Teachers tend to have implicit bias and hold assumptions about students’ learning behaviours that can affect students’ growth. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (b) A is true but R is false.
• (c) Both A and R are false.
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

9. Which of the following is not a way to promote diversity in the classroom?

• (a) Encouraging students to express their unique identities and cultures
• (b) Adapting behaviour based on stereotyping students according to their backgrounds and cultures
• (c) Providing opportunities for students to interact with individuals from different backgrounds and cultures
• (d) Incorporating a variety of perspectives and experiences in the curriculum

10. Which of the following is the correct match of learning disability and challenge caused by it?

• (a) Dysgraphia—Impacts fine motor skills and spelling
• (b) Dyslexia—Impacts ability to learn numbers and arithmetic operations
• (c) Dyspraxia—Impacts ability to see, hear and talk properly
• (d) Dyscalculia—Impacts ability to read and language processing skills

11. Students struggling with ‘autism’ show ease at

• (a) eye contact during conversation.
• (b) familiar and predictable routines.
• (c) rapid transitions between activities.
• (d) communication with strangers.

12. Which of the following statements is not correct about gifted children?

• (a) Children can be gifted in more than one kind of intelligence.
• (b) Gifted children are born with extraordinary abilities and potential that need to be nurtured.
• (c) Gifted children have lower sense of curiosity and poor imagination skills.
• (d) Children can be gifted at different levels and some can have some kind of disability also.

13. Error analysis by students

• (a) hinders metacognitive skills of students.
• (b) is a futile activity in process of learning.
• (c) supports students in retaining their learning.
• (d) creates further gaps in students’ understanding.

14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge?

• (a) Declarative knowledge is also known as analytical knowledge.
• (b) Procedural knowledge is generally process-oriented in nature.
• (c) Procedural knowledge tells the factual knowledge about something.
• (d) Declarative knowledge emphasizes how to do something.

15. Contents which require an extension or modification of existing cognitive structures take _____ time for learning and are retained for _____ duration.

• (a) long, short
• (b) short, short
• (c) short, long
• (d) long, long

16. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Teachers should encourage children to focus on questions such as “what is my learning goal and what do I need to do to get there”. Reason (R) : When students understand how to self-assess their work performance, they can use this understanding to help themselves learn and progress. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (b) A is true but R is false.
• (c) Both A and R are false.
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

17. In guided discovery approach of learning

• (a) no prior planning or previous knowledge is required.
• (b) opportunities are provided to learners to construct knowledge for themselves.
• (c) teacher acts as a dictator and learners act as listeners.
• (d) learners are left on their own without any kind of intervention by teacher.

18. Which of the following strategies is not effective while developing conceptual understanding in children?

• (a) Presenting non-examples to show what the concept is not
• (b) Asking students to generate their own examples
• (c) Asking students to memorize the definition as it is
• (d) Presenting a wide range of examples in diverse contexts

19. An active middle school classroom should be founded on the theoretical principles of

• (a) psychodynamism
• (b) social constructivism
• (c) psychoanalysis
• (d) behaviourism

20. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Empathy depends on the ability to understand that others have feelings and to gauge their feelings. Reason (R) : Emotions and cognition are not related to each other. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (b) A is true but R is false.
• (c) Both A and R are false.
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

21. A middle school teacher can enable students become strategic self-motivated learners by—

• (a) providing varied forms of reinforcement for every task completed.
• (b) dictating well-prepared answers to questions in the textbook.
• (c) stressing upon objective-type testing at the end of the term.
• (d) encouraging students to develop their metacognitive knowledge and skills.

22. Which of the following exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

• (a) Motivation driven by personal interest or enjoyment of the task
• (b) Motivation driven by competition with others
• (c) Motivation driven by gaining the appreciation of others
• (d) Motivation driven by external rewards

24. A major developmental task during _____ is the search for identity—personal, sexual and occupational.

• (a) early childhood
• (b) adolescence
• (c) middle adulthood
• (d) middle childhood

25. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Children learn values and norms of the society in overt as well as covert ways. Reason (R) : Socialization is the simple process of passing on customs and rituals of the society. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (b) A is true but R is false.
• (c) Both A and R are false.
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

26. As per Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following abilities distinguishes formal operational thinking from concrete operational thinking?

• (a) Conservation
• (b) Object permanence
• (c) Symbolic play
• (d) Abstract logic

27. A significant critique of Jean Piaget is that he failed to adequately consider the influence of _____ on development.

• (a) culture
• (b) experience
• (c) activity
• (d) maturation

28. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

• (a) Good boy-Good girl orientation—Greatest good for greater numbers
• (b) Law and Order orientation—Upholding principles of social justice for humanity
• (c) Social Contract orientation—Consideration of perception of others
• (d) Punishment and Obedience orientation—Avoidance of bad consequences

29. Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky are similar in their belief that

• (a) language influences and determines thought.
• (b) culture has a profound effect on the learning.
• (c) development of children takes place in stage-like progression.
• (d) children are involved in the process of meaning making.

30. Lev Vygotsky proposed that

• (a) children’s thinking is ‘quantitatively’ different from adults.
• (b) children’s thinking is ‘qualitatively’ different from adults.
• (c) children have a lot of potential which includes tasks they can do with the others’ support.
• (d) children are born ‘unruly’ and society needs to teach them social behaviours.

31. In about how many days does the moon move around the earth?

• (a) 29 days
• (b) 28 days
• (c) 27 days
• (d) 30 days

32. Match Column—A with Column—B : Column—A Column—B (a) Tropic of Cancer (i) (b) Tropic of Capricorn (ii) (c) Arctic Circle (iii) (d) Antarctic Circle (iv) Choose the correct option.

• (a) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
• (b) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
• (c) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
• (d) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

33. Which one of the following is not correct about the earth?

• (a) In size, the earth is the fifth largest planet
• (b) Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun
• (c) The shape of the earth is described as a geoid
• (d) The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun

34. Read the two statements carefully : Statement A : At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read 12 o’clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky, i.e., when it is mid-day. Statement B : The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and B are false
• (b) A is true but B is false
• (c) A is false but B is true
• (d) Both A and B are true

35. Ecosystem is formed by :

• (a) all plants, animals and human beings
• (b) interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings
• (c) atmosphere and hydrosphere
• (d) lithosphere and biosphere

36. Read the statements A and B carefully : A : Human beings interact with the environment and modify it according to their need. B : A perfect balance is necessary between the natural and human environment. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and B are true but B does not explain A
• (b) A is true but B is false
• (c) A is false but B is true
• (d) Both A and B are true and B explains A

37. Why is tourism a major activity in Ladakh—the cold desert of India? A. Visits to Gompas B. Treks to see meadows and glaciers C. Witnessing ceremonies and festivities D. It is flat plain area Choose the correct option.

• (a) B, C and D
• (b) A, B and D
• (c) A, B and C
• (d) A, C and D

38. Which one of the following gases is the second most plentiful gas in the air?

• (a) Oxygen
• (b) Carbon dioxide
• (c) Hydrogen
• (d) Nitrogen

39. Given below are four statements : A : High pressure is associated with clear sunny skies. B : Air pressure is not influenced by temperature of air. C : Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather. D : Air always moves from high-pressure to low-pressure areas. Choose the true statements about air pressure and temperature.

• (a) A, B and D
• (b) A, C and D
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, B and C

40. Read the statements A and B carefully : A : Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transport since early days. B : Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and B are false
• (b) A is true but B is false
• (c) A is false but B is true
• (d) Both A and B are true

41. Many species of plants and animals have become vulnerable or endangered and some are on the verge of extinction. Choose the reasons from the following : A. Afforestation B. Landslides C. Constructional activities D. Poaching of animals Options :

• (a) A, B and C
• (b) B, C and D
• (c) A, B and D
• (d) A, C and D

42. Read the statements A and B carefully : A : Potential resources are those resources whose entire quantity may not be known. B : These resources are not being used at present. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and B are false
• (b) A is true but B is false
• (c) A is false but B is true
• (d) Both A and B are true

43. Match Column—A with Column—B : Column—A Column—B (a) Sericulture (i) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use (b) Pisciculture (ii) Cultivation of grapes (c) Viticulture (iii) Breeding of fish (d) Horticulture (iv) Commercial rearing of silkworms Choose the correct option.

• (a) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
• (b) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
• (c) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
• (d) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

44. Which of the following is not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

• (a) Liberty
• (b) Freedom
• (c) Justice
• (d) Equality

45. A situation where a person does not have resources and opportunities that are available to other persons is known as

• (a) inequality
• (b) difference
• (c) otherness
• (d) diversity

46. Which of the following is/are not characteristic/characteristics of democratic government? A. Indirect participation of people in decision making B. The Prime Minister has absolute power C. Explain and defend its actions to the people Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only B
• (b) Only A and C
• (c) Only B and C
• (d) Only A

47. Which of the following functions does not come under the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporations?

• (a) Making laws
• (b) Maintaining law and order
• (c) Developing parks
• (d) Education

48. Which of the following sequences in context of market chain is correct?

• (a) Wholesaler—Producer—Retailer—Consumer
• (b) Producer—Retailer—Wholesaler—Consumer
• (c) Producer—Wholesaler—Retailer—Consumer
• (d) Wholesaler—Retailer—Producer—Consumer

49. Read the following statements in reference to agricultural labourers : Statement A : Employment guarantee programmes in rural areas can decrease migration from rural to urban areas. Statement B : One of the main reasons for rural to urban migration has been the higher income jobs available in urban areas. Choose the correct option.

• (a) A is false but B is true
• (b) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
• (c) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A
• (d) A is true but B is false

50. Match Column—A with Column—B : Column—A Column—B (Panchayati Raj Institutions) (Tasks) (a) Gram Sabha (i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats (b) Gram Panchayat (ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction (c) Janpad Panchayat (iii) Approving BPL list (d) Zila Parishad (iv) Maintaining water sources Choose the correct option.

• (a) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
• (b) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
• (c) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
• (d) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

51. What does ‘double burden’ refer to?

• (a) Pressure on men to get high-salaried job and not be emotionally weak
• (b) Women doing household chores and working outside the home too
• (c) Young girls doing the household chores and looking after the younger siblings too
• (d) Boys are expected to be physically as well as emotionally strong

52. The ———— protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.

• (a) Human Rights
• (b) Fundamental Rights
• (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
• (d) Political Rights

53. Which of the following acts violate Article 21 of the Constitution of India? A. A sanitation staff not getting minimum wages fixed by the government B. Private schools charging exorbitant fees from students C. A textile company contaminating the groundwater which is a source of drinking water D. Denying hawkers to carry on their trade on the pavements Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only B and C
• (b) Only A and C
• (c) Only B and D
• (d) Only A and B

54. Consider the following statements : Statement A : If an FIR has been registered for a cognizable offence, the police can detain any relative of the accused for 24 hours. Statement B : The police investigation includes collecting different kinds of evidence. Choose the correct option.

• (a) A is false but B is true
• (b) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
• (c) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A
• (d) A is true but B is false

55. Which of the following could be an appropriate way to counter the marginalization of Adivasis?

• (a) Showcase their culture as exotic in media
• (b) Appeal them to adapt into the ways of living of majority community
• (c) Teach their history in schools
• (d) Ask them to migrate to cities

56. Which of the following communities has/have been provided constitutional safeguards by enacting the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989? A. Minorities B. Women C. Scheduled Castes D. Scheduled Tribes Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only B
• (b) Only C and D
• (c) Only A, C and D
• (d) Only A

57. The boundaries of disciplines that make up the social sciences need to be opened up and a plurality of approaches may be applied to understand a given phenomenon. What is this approach called?

• (a) Bounded knowledge
• (b) Scientific inquiry
• (c) Utilitarianism
• (d) Interdisciplinary thinking

58. Which of the following is foundational logic in the drafting of syllabi of social science?

• (a) Focusing on utilitarian aspects
• (b) Developing more instructive textbooks
• (c) Epistemic shift towards patriarchal nationalist frame
• (d) Inclusion of local perception

59. The concept of a ‘fair trial’ is an important one while talking about the criminal justice system. To teach this concept, you narrate to the students the story of a person who has been accused of theft and what happens thereafter at the police station and later in the court. What pedagogical resource have you used here?

• (a) Case study
• (b) Charts
• (c) Political cartoon
• (d) Survey data

60. Which of the following should be followed by the teacher in his/her classroom to promote meaningful learning?

• (a) Giving easy tasks to the students
• (b) Promoting the ‘culture of quizzing’ among the students
• (c) Giving those tasks to the students which are challenging
• (d) Giving recall-based tasks to the students

61. Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Assertion (A) : The study of social science helps the learners in understanding the contemporary society better. Reason (R) : Social science education aims at providing students essential knowledge, skills and attitude necessary for self-development and also for becoming an effective member of the society. Options :

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (b) A is true but R is false
• (c) A is false but R is true
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

62. Teaching social science is a

• (a) professional activity
• (b) process of transmission of facts
• (c) coaching for memorization
• (d) personal activity

63. Which of the following is/are the most suitable teaching-learning material/materials to explain different parts of the earth to the students? A. Globe B. Map C. Atlas Choose the correct option.

• (a) B and C
• (b) A and C
• (c) Only A
• (d) A and B

64. Which of the following pedagogical techniques should be used by teachers for making social science enjoyable for students? A. Organization of visits to museum B. Celebration of Social Science Week C. Encouraging watching of night sky D. Sharing large statistical data related to social facts Choose the correct option.

• (a) B, C and D
• (b) A, C and D
• (c) A, B and D
• (d) A, B and C

65. Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Statement I : Meaningful learning in social science is a generative process of storage and retrieval of information. Statement II : Thinking, language (verbal or sign) and doing things are intimately intertwined. Options :

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

66. Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Statement I : In a democratic setup, centralization of power such as the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ has gained importance. Statement II : ‘Panchayati Raj System’ aims at raising the levels of participation and involvement of people. Options :

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

67. The ‘Sabhas’ in the reign of Pallava, through their subcommittees, performed various works such as irrigation, road construction, maintenance of local temples, etc. Which of the following child-centred activities can be done to acquaint the students with the nuances of their functioning? A. Description of work division on the school campus B. Example of different groups created for classroom management C. Getting a real tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava D. Getting a tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava through audio-visual material Choose the correct option.

• (a) B and C
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) A, B and D
• (d) A and B

68. To ensure that social science teaching moves away from an excessive emphasis on developmental issues to an understanding of issues related to justice and dignity, there needs to be a shift in focus from utilitarianism to ————.

• (a) consequentialism
• (b) egalitarianism
• (c) existentialism
• (d) altruism

69. Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Assertion (A) : An important aspect of social science is the possibility of having different shades or at times even diametrically opposite answers. Reason (R) : It is critical for a social science teacher to move away from the age-old habit of preaching to the pulpit. Options :

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (b) A is true but R is false
• (c) A is false but R is true
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

70. The use of iron in the Indian subcontinent began about 3000 years ago. What task would you give to your students to develop their understanding on such historical episodes? A. Reviewing the book ‘What Happened in History’ written by Gordon Childe B. Meeting someone from the traditional blacksmithing community of your area and gathering information C. Visiting a factory under the supervision of a teacher and noting down the process of making iron D. Collecting information by visiting any Megalithic site located in the Deccan under the supervision of a teacher Choose the correct option.

• (a) A, C and D
• (b) B, C and D
• (c) Only A
• (d) A, B and C

71. How will you assess the students through the ‘project of wallpaper’ ? A. Seeing the selection of the subjects by the students B. Seeing the presentation on the subject matter by the students C. Asking follow-up questions after the presentation on the topic by the students D. Asking follow-up questions before the presentation on the topic by the students Choose the correct option.

• (a) A, B and C
• (b) A and D
• (c) A, C and D
• (d) A and B

72. Which of the following statements is not true about formative assessments?

• (a) The main objective of such tests is to make a final judgement about whether students have met the learning goals of the course.
• (b) They allow teachers to modify their own teaching strategies through ongoing feedback.
• (c) They are diagnostic in nature.
• (d) Formative assessments are a way for teachers to frequently check students’ progress in a course.

73. Which of the following is true about testing?

• (a) It is not a standard for comparison
• (b) It is a ground for admission only
• (c) It is not a trial of a student’s qualities
• (d) It is a ground for critical examination

74. Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Statement I : Learning is a continuous process. Statement II : Learning cannot take place outside the school premises. Options :

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

75. Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Assertion (A) : Testing has a diagnostic function to indicate the presence or absence of a characteristic. Reason (R) : Testing is an event or a situation that comprises a set of questions or problems that analyze a person’s quality of learning or determine his knowledge, abilities, etc. Options :

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
• (b) A is true but R is false
• (c) A is false but R is true
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

76. Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options : Statement I : In school education, paper-pencil tests are the only way of testing the learners. Statement II : During the testing in schools, values or numbers are assigned to represent that the learner has performed. Options :

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

77. A place, where documents and manuscripts are stored and today all National and State Governments have them, to keep all their old official records and transactions, is called

• (a) Library
• (b) Parliament
• (c) Archive
• (d) Secretariat

78. Which of the following statements related to Tamil region is wrong?

• (a) Muvendar is a Tamil word meaning three chiefs used for heads of three ruling families.
• (b) The three ruling families were the Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas.
• (c) Each of the three chiefs had three centres of power.
• (d) Sangam poems mention the Muvendar.

79. Assertion : The relationship between the State and religion may be a bone of contention in today’s Indian polity, but history presents workable solutions. Choose the appropriate reason/reasons for the above assertion. A. Temples were often central to the economy and society. B. The town of Ramdaspur had developed around the central Gurudwara called Harmandar Sahib. C. Sufis were Muslim mystics who rejected outward religiosity and emphasized compassion for all fellow human beings. D. History is about the battles between different States and religions.

• (a) Only A
• (b) Only B
• (c) Only D
• (d) Only A, B and C

80. Unusual for the 12th century, Kalhana used a variety of sources. Unlike the writers of Prashastis, he was often critical about rulers and their practices. His sources include :

• (a) earlier histories and eyewitness accounts
• (b) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts and documents
• (c) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts, documents and inscriptions
• (d) earlier histories

81. Which of the following are true with regard to the Marathas? A. Shivaji carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families. B. Powerful warrior families were called ‘Deshmukhs’. C. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were the backbone of the Maratha army. D. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were called ‘Kunbis’. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only C and D
• (b) A, B, C and D
• (c) Only A, B and C
• (d) Only A and C

82. Historical claim : ‘‘The Ahom built a large State.’’ Choose the appropriate evidences for the above claim. A. The Ahoms used firearms to build a large State. B. The Ahoms made high-quality gunpowder and cannons. C. The Ahom State depended upon forced labour. D. In 1662, the Ahoms defeated the Mughals.

• (a) B, C and D
• (b) A, C and D
• (c) A, B and D
• (d) A, B and C

83. State the validity of the following on peasant revolts : Assertion : Those who are oppressed do not always rise up in rebellion. They do so only at times. Reason : In 1859, the Indigo Ryots felt that they had the support of the local Zamindars against the planters. Conclusion : Women turned up to fight with pots, pans and kitchen implements.

• (a) Only Assertion and Reason are valid
• (b) Only Reason and Conclusion are valid
• (c) Only Assertion and Conclusion are valid
• (d) Assertion, Reason and Conclusion all are valid

84. The following are some facts related to Company policies during the second half of the 18th century : A. Artisans started deserting villages. B. The Company purchased goods in India by gold and silver. C. The revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods. D. The Company became the Diwan. Arrange them in sequence of their occurrence.

• (a) B, A, C, D
• (b) A, B, C, D
• (c) C, B, A, D
• (d) B, D, C, A

85. Which of the following institutional developments was/were direct outcome/outcomes of the Wood’s Despatch? A. Education departments of the government were set up in provinces. B. Centralization of education under the Governor General took place. C. Steps were taken to establish a system of university education. D. Indian Civil Service colleges were set up in England. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Two of the above
• (b) Three of the above
• (c) All of the above
• (d) One of the above

86. Who amongst the following argued that before Aryan rule, there existed a golden age when warrior-peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fair ways?

• (a) Ram Mohan Roy
• (b) Periyar
• (c) Jyotirao Phule
• (d) Guru Nanak

87. Consider the following statements on Non-Brahman Movement : A. The movement came from non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education. B. The movement argued that the Aryans were the indigenous races. C. The movement came from non-Brahman castes with wealth and influence. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only B and C are valid
• (b) Only C is valid
• (c) Only B is valid
• (d) Only A and C are valid

88. Social insecurities, in any society, result from a sense of alienation. In this context, the Indian Nationalist Movement was a movement : A. to acknowledge the supremacy of people over the structures of government B. to do away with the differences of class, colour and language C. to acknowledge the government as being equal to the God Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only B
• (b) Only A and B
• (c) Only B and C
• (d) Only A

89. It was established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage and women’s education. It condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism. Identify the associated movement/organization.

• (a) Veda Samaj
• (b) Vedanta Samaj
• (c) Theosophical Society
• (d) Self-Respect Movement

90. After the attainment of independence, why did the demand for linguistic States intensify? A. In the 1920s, the Indian National Congress had promised that after independence each major linguistic group would have its own province. B. After independence, the Congress did not take any steps to honour its promise of major linguistic groups having its own province. C. The Kannada, Telugu speakers had looked forward to having their own State. The strongest protest came from Tamil speakers of the Telugu-speaking districts. D. Nehru and Patel were against the creation of linguistic States. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only B, C and D
• (b) Only A and B
• (c) Only C and D
• (d) Only A, B and C

91. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Delaying the learning of languages in the early years makes it more difficult for children to acquire new languages. Reason (R) : Early years of the child are sensitive periods for language acquisition. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
• (b) A is not true but R is true
• (c) A is true but R is not true
• (d) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of A

92. One of the key principles of National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage (2022) with respect to multilingualism is

• (a) children are not able to pick up multiple oral languages in the early years
• (b) multilingualism has both cognitive and societal/cultural benefits
• (c) children must be helped to unlearn their home language and focus of the school must shift on learning the language of the school
• (d) multilingual nature of a classroom acts as a barrier in effective curriculum transaction

93. In some of the speech communities, two different varieties of language coexist, each with a distinct range of social function. This situation is described as

• (a) register
• (b) diglossia
• (c) dialect
• (d) code mixing

94. Children work in pairs. A text is divided in half. One child reads their text for the partner which the other child writes. Two of them work out the whole text. This activity is called

• (a) word web
• (b) partial dictation
• (c) storytelling
• (d) running dictation

95. Which of the following statements is not true of study about the literary texts in language classroom?

• (a) Literary texts are cultural inputs for language learning.
• (b) Literary texts develop critical thinking and reflection.
• (c) Literary texts are for appreciation and enjoyment.
• (d) Literary texts should be used to teach grammar.

96. Naveen of Class VI struggles with reading the text. The teacher gives him simpler text to read. She conducts shared reading sessions for him. The support provided by the teacher is called

• (a) scaffolding
• (b) brainstorming
• (c) ice breaking
• (d) reading readiness

97. Which approach to language teaching-learning believes ‘language is a habit’?

• (a) Communicative language teaching
• (b) Natural approach
• (c) Cooperative language learning
• (d) Audiolingualism CEF–26–II (Z)/P2 61 [ P.T.O.

98. A child reads an unseen passage for which he is expected to answer the questions that follow. This type of reading is referred to as

• (a) exclusive reading
• (b) skimming
• (c) extensive reading
• (d) scanning

99. Teacher shows five pictures to the students and asks them to write story based on these pictures. This is an example of

• (a) jigsaw dictation
• (b) shared reading
• (c) creative writing
• (d) show and tell

100. Which of the following is the characteristic of performance-based assessment in language?

• (a) Non-interactive performance
• (b) Decontextualized test items
• (c) Contextualized communicative tasks
• (d) Multiple-choice questions

101. Read the following statements : A : Reading is just to understand letter-sound relationships and pronounce the words correctly. B : Reading is decoding symbols to arrive at meaning. Choose the correct option.

• (a) A is true but B is false
• (b) B is true but A is false
• (c) Both A and B are false
• (d) Both A and B are true

102. A teacher has to assess listening skill of her students. Which of the following activities can she select as a listening assessment?

• (a) Teacher tells a story and after that asks comprehension-based questions
• (b) Teacher asks the children to read a story and after that asks comprehension-based questions
• (c) Teacher gives vocabulary-based tasks
• (d) Rating the children on their oral presentation

103. _____ is concerned with the aspects of meaning in language.

• (a) Semantics
• (b) Syntax
• (c) Morphology
• (d) Phonetics

104. Which of the following is not the principle of language learning?

• (a) Learners may vary in their preferred approaches to learning
• (b) Language is a tool for communication
• (c) Language is learnt through memorization of structures/rules of grammar
• (d) Learning a language involves mastery of both skill and knowledge

105. A teacher of Grade 6 writes a word in the centre of the blackboard, and asks the learners to brainstorm all the words they can think of which are connected to the central word. The major objective of this activity is

• (a) improving vocabulary of learners
• (b) understanding grammar
• (c) enhancing reading skills
• (d) enhancing writing skills

106. The speaker’s bird can do a number of things. It is because

• (a) the bird is caged
• (b) the bird is free
• (c) the bird is sorrowful
• (d) the bird is talented

107. The caged bird is described as ‘a crippled thing’ because

• (a) it is not free to fly and soar
• (b) it is poor
• (c) it is wild
• (d) its one leg is broken

108. Which poetic device is used in the expression ‘sorrowful wings’ ?

• (a) Simile
• (b) Transferred epithet
• (c) Personification
• (d) Metaphor

109. What is the theme of the poem?

• (a) The birds should be kept in a cage
• (b) The birds should be given good food
• (c) Birds living in the open enjoy their lives
• (d) The caged bird lives a fruitful life

110. “But my bird sings!” denotes that

• (a) my bird is free
• (b) my bird doesn’t feel free
• (c) my bird has regained her voice
• (d) my bird sings sweetly

111. The speaker says that the cage-bird flutters its sorrowful wings. The wings are being described as ‘sorrowful’ because

• (a) the bird is sad as it is caged
• (b) the bird can’t sing
• (c) the bird is hungry
• (d) the wings are broken CEF–26–II (Z)/P2 63 [ P.T.O.

112. ‘The movement towards health clubs is yet to gain momentum in India’ signifies that

• (a) insurance companies are getting good premium due to health clubs
• (b) health clubs in Indian companies have not yet become popular
• (c) due to health clubs, many consultancies have opened up
• (d) health clubs are getting popular in Indian companies

113. What is directly affected by physical health?

• (a) Business
• (b) Efficiency
• (c) Insurance premium
• (d) Mind

114. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘nominal’?

• (a) Cursory
• (b) Simple
• (c) Substantial
• (d) Above-mentioned

115. Which one of the following words is nearest in meaning to the word ‘prerequisite’ ?

• (a) Required
• (b) Optional
• (c) Secondary
• (d) Unnecessary

118. What is the prerequisite for high effect and good quality work?

• (a) Health club
• (b) Exercising and stretching
• (c) Sound mind in a sound body
• (d) Good quality office

119. Japanese companies ensure loyalty and motivation by making their workers

• (a) drink healthy drinks
• (b) sing the company’s song
• (c) join health clubs
• (d) start off the day with exercising

120. Why do companies have health clubs?

• (a) They attract profit to the company
• (b) They help in better efficiency and high productivity of the workers
• (c) Health insurance companies can tie up with these health clubs
• (d) They attract more workforce CEF–26–II (Z)/P2 65 [ P.T.O.

121. Between 12–18 months, children begin to produce a variety of recognizable single-unit utterances. This period, in which single terms are uttered for everyday objects, is called

• (a) telegraphic speech
• (b) holophrastic stage
• (c) babbling
• (d) cooing

122. Read the statements given below on reading and writing skills : A : The understanding of and ability to read also affects the ability to write. B : Reading and writing are separate processes and develop independent of each other. Choose the correct option.

• (a) A is correct but B is incorrect
• (b) Both A and B are incorrect
• (c) A is incorrect but B is correct
• (d) Both A and B are correct

123. All languages have certain common properties. These are called

• (a) language universals
• (b) register
• (c) dialect
• (d) diglossia

124. Acceptance of linguistic diversity in a class will

• (a) destroy the confidence of children leading to decreased imagination and creativity
• (b) have no impact on the language learning
• (c) boost up the confidence of children leading to increased imagination and creativity
• (d) hinder in attaining language fluency

125. Which of the following is not the characteristic of print awareness as part of emergent literacy?

• (a) Recognizing difference between letters and words
• (b) Reading is done from left to right and top to bottom
• (c) Starting to read full sentences
• (d) Handling a book

126. Given below are the learning outcomes for reading skill at foundational stage : A. Reads short passages accurately and fluently with appropriate intonation, pauses and voice modulation B. Reads a few sentences of familiar words with accuracy C. Reads short passages accurately with appropriate intonation and pauses Arrange them in order of progression.

• (a) B, C, A
• (b) A, C, B
• (c) C, A, B
• (d) A, B, C

127. Which of the following is not the part of extensive listening?

• (a) Listening for a main idea
• (b) Making inferences
• (c) Listening for certain facts and information
• (d) Listening for the gist

128. Which of the following tasks cannot be used for assessment of reading skill?

• (a) Multiple-choice questions based on the text read
• (b) Picture-cued word identification
• (c) Storytelling session by the teacher
• (d) Read aloud

129. Which of the following statements correctly defines running dictation?

• (a) Children work in pairs. A text is divided in half. One child reads their text for the partner which the other child writes. Two of them work out the whole text.
• (b) Children work in pairs. The runner runs to see the text and dictate to the partner. The partner writes the text.
• (c) Teacher dictates the word/text to the class and students note it.
• (d) Students hear or read different parts of the text, then exchange information with others to complete the task.

130. “A child is born with the innate capacity to acquire language.” This idea of language acquisition is supported by

• (a) cognitivist
• (b) social interactionist
• (c) behaviourist
• (d) nativist

131. In process writing approach, the element of the writing process during which writers formally share their work with the wider audience refers to

• (a) publishing
• (b) editing
• (c) revising
• (d) drafting

132. For dealing with difficult words in the text, a language teacher first converts the words into mother tongue and then asks the students to memorize them. She is using

• (a) direct method
• (b) structural approach
• (c) communicative approach
• (d) grammar-translation method

133. The space between what a learner can do without assistance and what they can do in collaboration with adults or more capable peers is termed as

• (a) zone of proximal development
• (b) zone of achievement
• (c) distance learning
• (d) level of maturity

134. An impairment of language function due to localized cerebral damage which leads to difficulty in understanding and/or producing linguistic forms is called

• (a) dyslexia
• (b) dyscalculia
• (c) dysarthria
• (d) aphasia

135. The process by which the language is passed from one generation to another is called

• (a) productivity
• (b) arbitrariness
• (c) displacement
• (d) cultural transmission CEF–26–II (Z)/P2 71 [ P.T.O.

136. What has caused increased salinity in the Rann of Kachchh?

• (a) Arrival of a large number of tourists
• (b) Construction of dams on rivers that flow into the region
• (c) A large number of hunting expeditions
• (d) Arrival of flamingoes

137. Which one of the following words, as used in the passage, is similar in meaning to the phrase ‘unable to be reached’?

• (a) Inaccessible
• (b) Migratory
• (c) Proliferation
• (d) Visitors

138. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘destruction’?

• (a) Breeding
• (b) Starvation
• (c) Construction
• (d) Honoured

140. Which part of the following sentence contains an error? The right mix of / sweet and brackish / water in the Rann are crucial A B C / for the proliferation of algae. D

• (a) D
• (b) C
• (c) A
• (d) B

141. The flamingoes are not ordinary visitors to Kachchh as

• (a) they are very beautiful birds
• (b) they have medicinal value
• (c) they have been the honoured guests of King Lakho
• (d) they come from Australia

142. Flamingo City is known

• (a) as one of the biggest breeding grounds of the Greater Flamingoes
• (b) for its beauty
• (c) as the biggest island in the world
• (d) as a hunting ground of flamingoes

143. Read the following statements and write which of the options given below is correct : A. As he was leaving the Emperor’s room, the doctor dropped some tea leaves into the Emperor’s bathwater on purpose. B. The Emperor tasted the hot tea water and soon he started feeling sleepy.

• (a) Only B is correct
• (b) Both A and B are correct
• (c) Both A and B are incorrect
• (d) Only A is correct

144. The doctor gave the Emperor some _____ to help him stay _____.

• (a) giloy leaves, fit
• (b) tea leaves, awake
• (c) tea leaves, sleepy
• (d) neem leaves, awake

145. Which one of the following words is nearest in meaning to the word ‘youthful’ ?

• (a) Adult
• (b) Experienced
• (c) Young
• (d) Elderly

146. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘flavourful’ ?

• (a) Nice
• (b) Bland
• (c) Appetizing
• (d) Yummy

148. Which of the following statements is not true?

• (a) The Emperor tasted the water.
• (b) There was a smile on his face.
• (c) After drinking it, he started feeling weak and lifeless.
• (d) When the servant brought the cup of hot water, the Emperor put some tea leaves into it.

149. Why did the Emperor call the doctor one morning?

• (a) He was feeling tired and sleepy
• (b) He wanted the doctor to give him some hot water
• (c) He wanted to discuss about his health with the doctor
• (d) He wanted to eat some medicinal leaves

150. The Emperor was angry because

• (a) he couldn’t chew the tea leaves
• (b) the tea leaves weren’t tasty
• (c) the doctor gave him something that was inedible
• (d) the tea leaves were covered with mud