CTET Paper II — 1 March 2026 (Set Q) — Social Studies

1. Which of the following typical characteristics is a child struggling with dysgraphia likely to show ?

• (a) Withdrawal, guilt and anxiety
• (b) Aggression, frustration and stress
• (c) Impulsiveness; difficulty in concentrating and forgetfulness
• (d) Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard

2. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Children learn most effectively when they are criticized frequently for their mistakes. Reason (R) : Frequent criticism makes children self‑reliant which helps in improving their academic performance.

• (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

3. Arpita and Anu give their books to each other since both consider it ‘an equal exchange of favours’. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development theory are Arpita and Anu ?

• (a) Post‑conventional level
• (b) Heteronomous level
• (c) Pre‑conventional level
• (d) Conventional level

4. Inclusion of students belonging to disadvantaged backgrounds requires :

• (a) identity‑based segregation of students.
• (b) tradition of exam‑centered pedagogy.
• (c) execution of standardized curriculum.
• (d) consideration of socio‑cultural diversity.

5. Which of the following is an effective strategy of emotional regulation ?

• (a) Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours
• (b) Waiting until emotions escalate to the point of losing control
• (c) Reacting impulsively to emotional triggers
• (d) Suppressing emotions in order to conform to social norms

6. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Adolescents have difficulty with emotional regulation and inhibiting their impulses and are quite susceptible to peer pressure. Reason (R) : Physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence impact the behaviour of adolescents in a variety of ways.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

7. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : A middle school language arts teacher selects stories and clippings from newspapers and magazines that portray men and women in non‑traditional roles. Reason (R) : Countering prevalent gender stereotypes by presenting other models is an effective way to overcome gender bias.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explantion of (A).
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

8. Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas on learning, a teacher should :

• (a) capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.
• (b) prevent integration of cultural knowledge in discussions.
• (c) encourage students to continually compete with each other.
• (d) discourage verbalization and thinking aloud among students.

9. Role of a teacher in ‘reciprocal teaching’ is characterized by :

• (a) being a mere recipient of the suggestions given by students.
• (b) the position of dominance and sole authority to disseminate the information to students.
• (c) a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.
• (d) his/her position of being a passive observer throughout the process.

10. An assessment approach aiming to support students’ learning is characterized by :

• (a) Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.
• (b) Evaluation and marking based on standardized quiz‑based tests.
• (c) Focus on inaccuracies only while ignoring the process and endeavours.
• (d) Exams done at the end of the year through objective type questions.

11. Which of the following statement about socialization is correct ?

• (a) Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.
• (b) Socialization happens only during childhood.
• (c) Norms and beliefs cannot be acquired through socialization process.
• (d) Socialization is culture‑independent and context‑neutral.

12. Gifted children :

• (a) excel in all academic as well as co‑curricular areas.
• (b) absorb information quickly and accurately.
• (c) get distracted easily and have low concentration span.
• (d) exhibit high cognitive abilities as well as skills of social communication.

13. Which of the following statements about language and cognition is not correct as per Lev Vygotsky’s theory ?

• (a) External speech is used to converse with others.
• (b) Language inevitably affects the way a child thinks.
• (c) Inner speech is used for mental reasoning.
• (d) Language development hinders cognitive development.

14. Which of the following statements about classroom assessment is correct ?

• (a) Focus of assessment should be paper‑pencil assessment rather than non‑written behaviours to maintain objectivity.
• (b) Use of norm‑referenced assessment that compares performance of the student to that of peers motivates students to learn more meaningfully.
• (c) Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.
• (d) Summative assessment does not serve any purpose and should not be undertaken since the process is more important than the final learning outcome.

15. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Teachers should ensure enough ‘wait time’, which is the length of time a teacher pauses, after asking a question. Reason (R) : Diversity is an asset and not an obstacle.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

16. Jean Piaget gave importance to ____________ in the course of development and learning.

• (a) cultural tools
• (b) exam‑centric pedagogy
• (c) conditioning of behaviour
• (d) children’s maturation and readiness to learn

17. Activities which ______________ are detrimental to students’ motivation to learn.

• (a) cater to students’ needs and interests
• (b) connect with real life of students
• (c) aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher
• (d) are moderately difficult for students

18. An effective strategy for solving ill‑defined problems is :

• (a) Focusing on functional fixedness
• (b) Algorithms
• (c) Learning by rote
• (d) Means‑Ends analysis

19. Which of the following set of qualities characterizes critical thinking ? (i) Ability to question (ii) Ability to self‑reflect (iii) Ability to test previously held assumptions (iv) Ability to think convergently Choose the correct option :

• (a) (i) and (ii)
• (b) (i) and (iv)
• (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

20. Learning about a concept/category is easier if :

• (a) previous knowledge about the concept is not activated.
• (b) lots of advanced information is given to create cognitive load.
• (c) familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.
• (d) concept is represented in abstract and complex ways.

21. Which of the following hinders problem‑solving ?

• (a) Applying algorithms and heuristics
• (b) Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem
• (c) Using a solution which was effective in solving a similar problem earlier
• (d) Breaking down large complex problems into manageable smaller problems

22. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Adaptations such as audio tapes, use of computer software which provides text‑to‑speech input, extended time to complete assignments, facilitate learning for students who are visually challenged. Reason (R) : Teachers should adapt the curriculum to provide equity and meet the needs of diverse learners.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

23. Which of the following statements is correct about gender development in contemporary times ?

• (a) Gender exists on a binary concept – one is either male or female.
• (b) Gender identity is not influenced by socialization.
• (c) Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.
• (d) Gender is purely and solely determined by an individual’s anatomy at birth.

24. According to Jean Piaget, what is the role of symbolic thought in cognitive development ?

• (a) Symbolic thought impacts cognitive development only in children with language delays.
• (b) Symbolic thought causes mental confusion and hinders cognitive development.
• (c) Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem‑solving.
• (d) Symbolic thought develops after cognitive development is complete.

25. Which of the following sets describe ways in which a school should be inclusive ? (i) Modification of curriculum as required (ii) Expecting students to totally adapt to the school’s culture (iii) Fostering an ethos of care and respect (iv) Opportunities for collaborative learning Choose the correct option :

• (a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

26. Contemporary theorists believe that childhood is :

• (a) A stage associated with divinity, purity and goodness.
• (b) Merely a transitional stage.
• (c) Variable and dynamic.
• (d) A life stage that is awaiting adulthood.

27. The process of bringing back the information stored in memory to current state is called _____________.

• (a) Forgetting
• (b) Attention
• (c) Retrieval
• (d) Decay

28. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : When unable to ‘make meaning’, efficient readers slow down and reread the text clarifying confusion before continuing further. Reason (R) : Metacognition hinders the process of meaning‑making.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

29. A teacher is providing learners with the chances to be exposed to and analyze concepts in order to help them understand the content through her support. This is an example of :

• (a) Pre‑dispositional learning
• (b) Guided discovery
• (c) Expository teaching
• (d) Observational modelling

30. Which of the following statement about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child is correct ?

• (a) While heredity contributes in unfolding of the child’s characteristic traits, the entirety of a child’s development is solely based on environmental factors.
• (b) While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual’s development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.
• (c) Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
• (d) Dispositions are linked with environmental factors but actual development occurs on the basis of heredity.

31. Which of the following statements are true about widow remarriage law in colonial India ? A. A law permitting widow marriage was passed in 1858. B. The number of widows who remarried increased. C. Many conservative groups continued to oppose this new law. D. Those who remarried were not easily accepted in society. Choose the correct option :

• (a) C and D
• (b) B and D
• (c) A and C
• (d) A and D

32. Consider the following statements on the impact of Indigo crop on peasant life : A. When the indigo crop was delivered to the planter after the harvest, a new loan was given to the ryot. B. The price that the peasants got for the indigo they had produced was very low. C. The planters insisted on the best soils for indigo. D. Indigo did not have deep roots and exhausted the soil. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only B, C and D are correct.
• (b) Only A, B and D are correct.
• (c) Only A, B and C are correct.
• (d) Only A, C and D are correct.

33. Match the following in the context of earliest kingdoms : A B A. Magadha i. Vaishali B. Vajji ii. Rajgriha C. Avanti iii. Taxila D. Gandhara iv. Ujjain Choose the correct option :

• (a) A‑ii, B‑i, C‑iv, D‑iii
• (b) A‑iv, B‑ii, C‑iii, D‑i
• (c) A‑iii, B‑iv, C‑i, D‑ii
• (d) A‑i, B‑iii, C‑iv, D‑ii

34. The Paramhansa Mandali was founded in 1840 to work for the abolition of which of the following issues ?

• (a) Child marriage
• (b) Caste system
• (c) Sati system
• (d) Widow marriage

35. The Ahoms migrated to the Brahmaputra Valley in the thirteenth century from the present‑day ___________ .

• (a) Bhutan
• (b) Nepal
• (c) Myanmar
• (d) Bangladesh

36. Match the following : Crop/Item Site A. Green gram i. Koldihwa B. Black gram ii. Chirand C. Fragmented animal bone iii. Paiyampalli D. Dog iv. Burzahom Choose the correct option :

• (a) A‑iii, B‑i, C‑ii, D‑iv
• (b) A‑ii, B‑iii, C‑i, D‑iv
• (c) A‑i, B‑iii, C‑ii, D‑iv
• (d) A‑i, B‑ii, C‑iii, D‑iv

37. Which one of the following is not true for the Indian National Congress during the colonial period ?

• (a) It demanded a greater voice for Indians in the government and in the administration.
• (b) It wanted the Legislative Councils to be more representative.
• (c) It demanded the civil service examinations be held in London, not in India.
• (d) In the first twenty years it was “moderate” in its objectives and methods.

38. Which of the following was a tax in the form of forced labour during the reign of the Cholas ?

• (a) Vetti
• (b) Porvari
• (c) Kadamai
• (d) Peruvazhi

39. Match the following columns : A. Creation of Andhra Pradesh as a State i. 1956 B. States Reorganisation Commission submitted its first report ii. 1953 C. Gujarat came into existence as a State iii. 1966 D. Haryana became a State iv. 1960 Choose the correct option :

• (a) A‑iv, B‑iii, C‑ii, D‑i
• (b) A‑i, B‑ii, C‑iii, D‑iv
• (c) A‑iii, B‑i, C‑iv, D‑ii
• (d) A‑ii, B‑i, C‑iv, D‑iii

40. From the following, how many pairs are correctly matched as mentioned in the Pallava inscriptions ? I. Sabha – Assembly of Brahmin landowners II. Ur – Organisation of Merchants III. Nagaram – Village assembly Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only two
• (b) Only one
• (c) None of these
• (d) All three

41. Which of the following is the correct sequence in which states were annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse, from the earliest to the last ?

• (a) Sambalpur, Satara, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
• (b) Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
• (c) Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Sambalpur, Jhansi
• (d) Sambalpur, Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Jhansi

42. The Buddha told the Vajjis that they would continue to prosper as long as : A. They held frequent public assemblies. B. They met and acted together. C. They followed established rules. D. Vajji women were not held by force or captured. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A and B are correct.
• (b) A and C are correct.
• (c) A, B, C and D are correct.
• (d) A, B and C are correct.

43. Who said, “We must indeed become nawabs ourselves” ?

• (a) Major Lawrence
• (b) Robert Clive
• (c) Harry Verelst
• (d) Warren Hastings

44. Read the given statements (A) and (B) : (A) : During the nineteenth century, Christian missionaries began setting up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children. (B) : At the same time, the poor began leaving their villages to look for jobs that were opening up in the cities. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Both (A) and (B) are true.
• (b) Both (A) and (B) are false.
• (c) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
• (d) (A) is false, but (B) is true.

45. Agriculture includes __________. A. Growing vegetables B. Pisciculture C. Horticulture D. Rearing of livestock Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only A and B
• (b) Only A, C and D
• (c) Only A, B and C
• (d) Only A

46. A population pyramid narrow at the base and higher in size reflects : A. High death rates of infants B. Low birth rates C. Increased life expectancy D. Decreased death rates Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only A, C and D
• (b) Only A, B and C
• (c) Only B, C and D
• (d) Only A and B

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct about meteoroids ? A. They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. B. It is believed that they are parts of a planet which exploded many years ago. C. These are small pieces of rocks which move around the Sun and sometimes they come close to the Earth and tend to drop upon it. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only B
• (b) Only A
• (c) Only C
• (d) Only A and C

48. Which of the following statements is true about heat zones of the Earth ?

• (a) The mid‑day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• (b) In the whole Southern hemisphere the Sun does not rise much above the horizon, Sun rays are always slanting here.
• (c) The mid‑day Sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes in between the Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle.
• (d) All the areas lying between the Equator and the Arctic Circle are called temperate zone.

49. Which of the following statements is/are correct for temperate zones ? A. Temperate zones have moderate temperature. B. The mid‑day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude in this zone. C. It spans between the Arctic Circle and the Equator in the Northern hemisphere only. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only A and B
• (b) All A, B and C
• (c) Only A and C
• (d) Only A

50. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Polar easterlies in the northern hemisphere move towards the right direction. Reason (R) : The Earth rotating on its axis affects the direction of the winds.

• (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

51. Consider the following pairs and identify how many of the given pairs are correctly matched : Type of forest Tree found A. Tropial Rain Forest — Mahogany B. Tropical Deciduous Forest — Rosewood C. Thorny Bushes — Deodar D. Mangrove Forests — Sundari Choose the correct option :

• (a) All four
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only one
• (d) Only three

52. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Wet clothes take a longer time to dry on a humid day. Reason (R) : The rate of evaporation increases on a humid day.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

53. The opening time of Central Government offices in India is 09:00 a.m. IST. What will be the local time of opening of the Central Government offices located at 78º 30′ East Longitude near Hyderabad and 92º 45′ East Longitude near Aizawl, respectively ?

• (a) 08:19 a.m. and 09:16 a.m. respectively
• (b) 08:44 a.m. and 09:41 a.m. respectively
• (c) 09:16 a.m. and 08:19 a.m. respectively
• (d) 09:41 a.m. and 08:44 a.m. respectively

54. Consider the following statements about migration : A. Migration has no effect on population size as people emigrate from the country and almost an equal number of them immigrate to the country. B. International migration is largely from the less developed nations to the more developed nations. C. Sudan is an example of a country that has experienced a loss in population due to emigration. Choose the correct option :

• (a) All A, B and C are correct.
• (b) Only A and C are correct.
• (c) Only A and B are correct.
• (d) Only B and C are correct.

55. What causes the formation of mushroom rocks ?

• (a) Erosion
• (b) Deposition
• (c) Earthquake
• (d) Weathering

56. What do we call the streams of water flowing constantly on the ocean surface in definite directions ?

• (a) Tsunami
• (b) Tides
• (c) Waves
• (d) Currents

57. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in the dry season. Reason (R) : Trees adapt according to climatic conditions and shed their leaves to conserve water in dry season.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

58. The National Medical Commission’s Code of Medical Ethics states every physician should prescribe drugs that come under ___________ medicines.

• (a) International
• (b) Superfluous
• (c) Preventive
• (d) Generic

59. A stereotypical viewpoint regards housework as ____________.

• (a) valuable work that women do
• (b) difficult for women
• (c) time‑consuming for women
• (d) women’s natural work

60. Which mechanism in a democratic country puts a limit on the powers of the government ?

• (a) Multi‑party system
• (b) Presence of pressure groups
• (c) Regular elections
• (d) People asserting their rights

61. Which among the following statements is/are true ? A. Women are emotional, is a common gender stereotype. B. The concepts of purity and pollution are associated with caste system. C. English is a superior language, is a prejudiced statement. D. Recognition of plurality of religions is not a feature of diversity in India. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only B
• (b) Only A
• (c) A, B and C
• (d) Only B and D

62. “An African‑American refused to give up her seat on a bus to a white man in 1955 and the incident led to the Civil Rights Movement in USA.” Who was this person ?

• (a) Noam Chomsky
• (b) Rosa Parks
• (c) Nelson Mandela
• (d) Rosa Luxemburg

63. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are given to every arrested person under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution ? A. The right to be informed of the offence for which he/she is being arrested. B. The right to be presented before a magistrate within 48 hours of arrest. C. The right not to be ill‑treated or tortured during arrest or in custody. D. The right of women and children not to be arrested. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only A and D are correct.
• (b) Only B, C and D are correct.
• (c) Only A and C are correct.
• (d) Only A and B are correct.

64. Which of the following are features of the Indian Constitution ? A. It offers special privileges for the supremacy of the judiciary. B. It adopts universal adult franchise. C. It guarantees equality before the law to all citizens. D. It offers special privileges to the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, C and D only
• (b) B, C and D only
• (c) A, B and C only
• (d) A, B and D only

65. Which part of the Indian Constitution serves as a guide to the Independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses ?

• (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
• (b) Fundamental Duties
• (c) Federalism
• (d) Fundamental Rights

66. In which state would you find the sea coast where Vasco da Gama first landed after discovering the sea route from Europe to India ?

• (a) Karnataka
• (b) Kerala
• (c) Tamil Nadu
• (d) Andhra Pradesh

67. The most distinctive aspect about the tribal societies is that there is very little ___________ among them.

• (a) heterogeneity
• (b) hierarchy
• (c) disunity
• (d) diversity

68. Consider the following statements : (A) Enforcement of laws is even more important when the law seeks to protect the weak from the strong. (B) Markets everywhere tend to be exploitative of workers only. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only (A) is correct.
• (b) Only (B) is correct.
• (c) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
• (d) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.

69. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are being used in India since 2004 for all general elections. It mainly saves ___________.

• (a) approximately 1,50,000 trees that are required to be cut to make ballot papers for every general election
• (b) the time of the voters and the Election Commission
• (c) the energy and efforts of local public
• (d) the money transferred illegally for getting votes

70. What would you commonly associate a ginning mill with ?

• (a) Sugar
• (b) Cotton bales
• (c) Wheat flour
• (d) Sunflower

71. Which of the following sources will provide primary information ‘to teach about challenges faced by women at workplace’ ?

• (a) Textbooks
• (b) Newspaper articles
• (c) Personal interviews
• (d) Biographies

72. Which statement is/are correct regarding evaluation ? A. According to the National Education Policy 2020, the evaluation of children will be creative and multidimensional (360 degree) in a holistic manner. B. Formative assessment is competency‑based, it promotes learning among students. C. Criterion‑referenced assessment refers to how a student scores in comparison to other students. D. Norm‑referenced assessment refers to how a student’s score compares to apre‑determined standard. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, C and D only
• (b) A and D only
• (c) A only
• (d) A, B, C and D

73. What should be the sequence the students must follow to prepare a project on the theme, ‘Role of Government in Health System’ ? A. Presenting the findings B. Deciding on the objectives C. Planning of collection of data D. Finding the specific sources of data Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C, D
• (b) B, D, C, A
• (c) B, C, D, A
• (d) A, C, B, D

74. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Explaining about civilization and culture, the teacher tells the children that social studies is related to culture and civilization and at the same time it affirms the scientific approach. Reason (R) : Social science has nothing to do with art. Science, when combined with society, becomes social science; therefore, it is related only to science.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

75. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : In the classroom, concepts should be explained to the students through the lived experiences of individuals and communities. Reason (R) : Teaching generalised notes on cultural, social and class differences may generate their own biases, prejudices and attitudes in classroom.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

76. Consider statements (A) and (B) : (A) Cooperative learning and collaborative learning are two different methods to teach social sciences. (B) In a classroom, each student prepared a presentation on the theme “Our Food” and contributed to the overall theme. This is an example of collaborative learning. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
• (b) Only (B) is correct.
• (c) Only (A) is correct.
• (d) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

77. Ambika wants to teach her class about land features, ocean currents, volcanoes and climate. Which of the following teaching‑learning material should she choose ?

• (a) Graphs, pictures, flashcards
• (b) Working models, maps, globe
• (c) Charts, scrapbooks, graphs
• (d) Timelines, blackboard, specimens

78. The objectives of teaching history are to : A. illustrate the sources used to reconstruct history. B. appreciate the skills and knowledge of early societies. C. identify archaeological evidences and making deductions from them. D. remember all the dates, places and persons whose details are discussed in textbooks. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B and D
• (b) A, C and D
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, B and C

79. The teacher tells the students that “the temperature decreases with the increase in height up to a certain level of the atmosphere”. Then the students solve problems related to the temperature of different places located at different latitudes. This is an example of ____________.

• (a) Inductive approach
• (b) Constructivist approach
• (c) Interdisciplinary approach
• (d) Deductive approach

80. Suppose a middle school social studies teacher assigns a project work on Shivaji. Which of the following would be highly relevant to develop critical thinking ? A. Prescribed textbook B. Books from school library C. Details from more than one Internet website D. Information shared by the teacher in class E. Information shared in social networking applications Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only A and D
• (b) Only A, C, D and E
• (c) Only A, B and C
• (d) Only A, B, C and D

81. Sonu is a visually disabled student of class VII. With reference to this, choose the correct option from the statements given below :

• (a) He must be in a special school.
• (b) All students of the class should be sympathetic towards him.
• (c) Social science teacher must modify her teaching and assessment strategies to include him in the normal class.
• (d) He can study in a normal school, but he should be promoted to the next class without any examination.

82. Which of the following could be the aim of a social science teacher ? A. Making students respond to desired situations. B. Accepting the student as an active learner. C. Controlling the free expression of students to maintain discipline. D. Giving importance to the ambitious behaviour of the students, motivating them to become ambitious. Choose the correct option :

• (a) B only
• (b) A, B, C and D
• (c) A, C and D only
• (d) A only

83. Which of the following methods of teaching social science involves students to go beyond textbooks ? A. Project work B. Lecture C. Questioning D. Demonstration Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, C and D
• (b) A and B
• (c) A, B and C
• (d) B and C

84. What is the main objective of peer assessment in the evaluation ?

• (a) Making the evaluation process simple and easy for the teacher.
• (b) Providing a structured learning process to critique peer students.
• (c) Strengthening social relationships while providing feedback to improve performance of peers.
• (d) Enabling students to learn to assess and provide constructive feedback.

85. During a discussion on the topic “How Weather Forecasts Help Us” in a social studies class, a teacher may :

• (a) ask students to draw pictures of different weather conditions.
• (b) show a news clip on weather forecasting.
• (c) assign the role of persons involved in different rural and urban professions to students.
• (d) show a PowerPoint presentation containing the summary of textbook contents.

86. Which of the questions or activities promote analytical thinking and creativity ? A. The Harappan civilization settled near which river ? B. Make a map of your house. C. Why are day and night not equal throughout the year ? D. What is the purpose of celebrating festivals ? Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only A and B
• (b) Only A and D
• (c) Only C and D
• (d) A, C and D only

87. Which one of the following questions will develop critical or logical thinking in students ? A. Open‑ended questions B. Closed‑ended questions C. Exploratory questions D. Convergent questions Choose the correct option :

• (a) B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) A, B and D
• (d) A, C and D

88. Which of the following would be the correct sequence of the steps in the 5E model lesson plan ?

• (a) Explain, elaborate, evaluate, engage, explore
• (b) Engage, explore, explain, elaborate, evaluate
• (c) Evaluate, explain, explore, engage, elaborate
• (d) Explore, engage, explain, elaborate, evaluate

89. A learner is continuously getting low marks in social science. Which of the following assessments is required to understand the difficulties ? A. Placement B. Summative C. Diagnostic D. Formative Choose the correct option :

• (a) A and B
• (b) C and D
• (c) A and D
• (d) Only B

90. While discussing gender roles in the classroom a teacher should : A. Suggest different professions for males and females. B. Offer different types of education to boys and girls. C. Lay emphasis on challenging gender stereotypes in one’s everyday life. Choose the correct option :

• (a) B and C
• (b) Only C
• (c) A and C
• (d) A and B

91. When monolingual speakers move from formal to informal modes of speech in the same spoken or gestured idea, it is called :

• (a) Slang
• (b) Code‑mixing
• (c) Dialect
• (d) Code‑switching

92. Which among the following theorists hypothesized that children have a built‑in readiness to learn language ?

• (a) Freud
• (b) Jim Cummins
• (c) Chomsky
• (d) Skinner

93. The purpose of remedial teaching is to :

• (a) teach again, the language items already learnt.
• (b) teach again, the language items not properly learnt.
• (c) test recently taught items.
• (d) introduce new language items.

94. If children hear two languages spoken around them, this exposure to two languages will :

• (a) confuse them.
• (b) put children at an advantage.
• (c) put children at a disadvantage.
• (d) not make any difference.

95. One day you bring some objects to the class and ask the children to name them. You write their responses on the blackboard and tell them that all these names are used for some objects which are called ‘nouns’ and then give its definition. The method you are using is called :

• (a) Deductive method
• (b) Direct Method
• (c) Incidental method
• (d) Inductive method

96. Input is defined as the _____________ a learner hears and responds to for its meaning.

• (a) Communication
• (b) Language
• (c) Conversation
• (d) Rules

97. Skinner opined that children would repeat sounds if they were followed by a pleasurable response. This viewpoint has its foundation in :

• (a) the language acquisition device.
• (b) observational learning.
• (c) the nativist theory.
• (d) operant conditioning.

98. To learn about the system of rules that govern how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences, you need to study :

• (a) Semantics
• (b) Syntax
• (c) Phonetics
• (d) Morphology

99. Based on your observation to develop a particular skill, you decide to use the Direct method in your class. For which skill will you use this method ?

• (a) Speaking skills
• (b) Writing skills
• (c) Reading skills
• (d) Listening skills

100. Language classroom often focuses on group and pair work. This also helps in developing an important value associated with an inclusive classroom, which is :

• (a) Envy
• (b) Competition
• (c) Collaboration
• (d) Sympathy

101. Children are motivated by activities that are :

• (a) meaningful to teachers.
• (b) planned by children.
• (c) meaningful to them.
• (d) planned by an adult.

102. Your friend is asked to teach functional grammar. She comes to you for help. You tell her that functional grammar means teaching grammar in/through :

• (a) explanation of literary content.
• (b) rules in isolation.
• (c) rules supported with examples.
• (d) context.

103. A ‘Recall‑Type’ test is a test of :

• (a) Memory
• (b) Thinking ability
• (c) Imagination
• (d) Understanding

104. Some words can have more than one meaning. The meaning of words in a particular language relates to which of the following ?

• (a) Syntax
• (b) Morphology
• (c) Phonology
• (d) Semantics

105. You want to identify the deficiencies and difficulties of the learners in your class. Which of the following evaluations would you use for the purpose ?

• (a) Diagnostic evaluation
• (b) Follow‑up evaluation
• (c) Criterion‑referenced evaluation
• (d) Summative evaluation

106. What did the cricket do in summer ?

• (a) Sang
• (b) Slogged like an ant
• (c) Slept and relaxed
• (d) Sat and played

107. Study the following statements : A. During winter, it was difficult to dance in the snow‑covered ground. B. However, the cricket could have enjoyed skating.

• (a) B is right and A is wrong.
• (b) A is right and B is wrong.
• (c) Both A and B are right.
• (d) Both A and B are wrong.

108. What made the cricket go to the ant ?

• (a) Empty cupboard
• (b) Piles of grains at ant’s place
• (c) Starvation and famine
• (d) Approaching winter

109. Which genre does the poem belong to ?

• (a) Sonnet
• (b) Epic
• (c) Lyric
• (d) Fable

110. What is the theme of the poem ?

• (a) If we don't care for our future, we will eventually suffer.
• (b) We should keep partying and dancing.
• (c) We should always pursue our hobbies.
• (d) We should always keep slogging like the ant.

111. ‘... sunny months of gay summer and spring.’ Identify the figure of speech used in the above line

• (a) Simile
• (b) Alliteration
• (c) Metaphor
• (d) Personification

112. The doctors amputated Aimee’s legs because ____________.

• (a) they were not of the same length
• (b) they had no bones
• (c) they were disfigured
• (d) they were not strong

113. When Aimee began to use designer legs, she caught the attention of ____________.

• (a) the fashion and beauty industry
• (b) photographers
• (c) sports committees
• (d) designers

114. Aimee had a painful childhood because : A. both her legs did not have bones. B. she underwent a lot of surgeries.

• (a) Only B is correct
• (b) Only A is correct
• (c) Both A and B are correct
• (d) Both A and B are incorrect

115. Which of the following statements is true ?

• (a) Aimee’s mother gave her special care when she was a young child.
• (b) The Boston meet was for double amputees only.
• (c) At the Boston meet, Aimee was the only one on wooden legs.
• (d) Soon Aimee started promoting health products.

116. At the Boston sports meet, Aimee discovered that all the other athletes had only one artificial leg. That did not discourage her. Instead, she began to do something. What was it ?

• (a) She decided to have designer legs.
• (b) She decided to enter long jump competition next.
• (c) She decided to enter the fashion industry.
• (d) She decided to participate in athletics.

117. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘self‑sufficient’ ?

• (a) Dependent
• (b) Independent
• (c) Needy
• (d) Helpless

118. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the word, ‘unconventional’ ?

• (a) Traditional
• (b) Innovative
• (c) Unusual
• (d) Eccentric

121. The passage talks about :

• (a) Asia‑Pacific business models.
• (b) best business model.
• (c) elements required for flourishing business.
• (d) innovative Japanese enterprises.

122. What are the bases of Japanese businesses ?

• (a) Cost control but quality compromise
• (b) Mass production and low cost
• (c) Good service and quality products
• (d) Demand and supply

123. Japanese firms believe in the principle of :

• (a) doing new things.
• (b) doing most of all little things right.
• (c) doing only few important things right.
• (d) doing all little things right.

124. Japanese products are not in competition with other countries in terms of :

• (a) cost and volume.
• (b) mass production, low‑cost models.
• (c) high profit margins.
• (d) customer‑centric approach.

127. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : A. Firms are utilizing an agile corporate structure. B. A large number of manufacturers have shifted to niche fields.

• (a) A is true, but B is false.
• (b) A is correct but not related to B.
• (c) Both A and B are false.
• (d) Both A and B are true but not connected to each other.

128. According to the passage, what is not a crucial factor in a firm’s success ? Select the most appropriate combination. A. Adaptability B. Mass production C. Change in focus of production D. Client satisfaction E. New offerings

• (a) A, B, E
• (b) A, D, E
• (c) A, C, D
• (d) C, D, E

129. Study the following statements carefully marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from the alternatives given below. Assertion (A) : We need to design clear policies to create an enabling, inclusive, and non‑discriminatory digital economy. Reason (R) : The pandemic has promoted the usage of digital ecosystem and digital economy.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

131. Study the following statements : A. Success of digital technology depends on high quality digital connectivity. B. Online environment needs to be safe and secure.

• (a) B is right and A is wrong.
• (b) A is right and B is wrong.
• (c) Both A and B are right.
• (d) Both A and B are wrong.

132. Which of the following words mean the same as ‘fosters’ (para 3) ?

• (a) encourages
• (b) squelches
• (c) stifles
• (d) serves

133. Read the following statements carefully and choose the most appropriate alternative : A. G20 enhances engagement among Global Innovation builders as start‑ups B. G20 is a launching pad for digital economy.

• (a) A is correct and B is wrong.
• (b) Both A and B are correct.
• (c) Both A and B are wrong.
• (d) B is correct and A is wrong.

135. Which of the following is the appropriate word from para 2 which means the same as ‘metamorphosis’ ?

• (a) transformation
• (b) importance
• (c) inclusion
• (d) application Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate option.

136. Which of the following are not related to emergent literacy ?

• (a) Basic alphabet knowledge
• (b) Taking note
• (c) Understanding that print carries meaning
• (d) Early phonological awareness

137. You love to have classroom discourse because it :

• (a) gives you power as a teacher.
• (b) hardly prompts the learners to think.
• (c) brings clarity and distinctiveness in the speech.
• (d) does not give importance to learner’s contributions.

138. Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education ?

• (a) “Oh ! How will such children mix with other children of the class ?”
• (b) “Oh ! There should be a separate section for such children.”
• (c) “Oh ! How can I teach children who cannot even hear ?”
• (d) “Wow ! It will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive.”

139. Which speaker would be most likely to engage in code‑mixing ?

• (a) Garv, a bilingual child
• (b) Satyaveer, a monolingual adult
• (c) Arpita, a monolingual child
• (d) Meera, a bilingual adult

140. The most important element in Communicative Language Teaching is :

• (a) the skill of writing.
• (b) meaning.
• (c) the structure of language.
• (d) memorizing the rules of grammar.

141. You are in the process of selecting the most suitable teaching aid. Which one of the following is not relevant in respect of selection of correct teaching aids ?

• (a) It should be simple and easy to use.
• (b) It need not have specific educational values.
• (c) It should be in sync with the topic being taught in the class.
• (d) It should be child‑centered.

142. Which among the following highlights the significant difference in Vygotsky’s and Piaget’s theory ?

• (a) The constructive/objective role of children in the process of meaning‑making
• (b) Understanding that learning is a simple/complex process
• (c) Understanding children as active/passive learners
• (d) The relationship between language and thought

143. You go through the students’ notebooks and give remarks. This is an example of :

• (a) Notebook checking
• (b) Feedback
• (c) Daily remarks
• (d) Evaluation

144. A language teacher wants to conduct a problem‑solving method effectively in her class. She should :

• (a) participate actively in the process.
• (b) encourage divergent thinking.
• (c) look at the students’ activities from a distance.
• (d) ask the students to consult their parents.

145. Rakesh, a student in your class, often makes errors in tense forms. To help him overcome this problem, you can :

• (a) explain to him the rules of grammar.
• (b) ask Rakesh to write the rules ten times in his notebook.
• (c) scold Rakesh to make him learn the rules.
• (d) take up many examples for the entire class and pay special attention to Rakesh.

146. You observe that Mandakini, a student of class IV, often makes mistakes while using tenses. You can help Mandakini overcome this problem by :

• (a) explaining or writing rules of grammar.
• (b) giving her real life situations or examples where she can use tenses.
• (c) asking her to memorize rules of tenses thoroughly.
• (d) asking Mandakini to write tenses 10 times in her notebook.

147. Phonemic awareness refers to :

• (a) the ability to establish relation between phonemes and graphemes.
• (b) the ability to identify and manipulate phonemes in spoken words.
• (c) reading words accurately and fluently.
• (d) writing with correct spellings.

148. Good speakers have the ability of :

• (a) Paraphrasing
• (b) Translating
• (c) Understanding
• (d) Quick analysis

149. A listener listens to the main idea, predicting, drawing inferences and summarizing. What are these strategies known as ?

• (a) Cognitive processes
• (b) Analytical processes
• (c) Top‑down processes
• (d) Bottom‑up processes

150. As a teacher, you prefer to use audio‑visual aids and physical activities in your teaching. You do this because you find that they :

• (a) provide relief to you in the classroom.
• (b) divert the attention of the learners.
• (c) utilize maximum number of senses to enhance learning.
• (d) facilitate effective assessment.