ExamBharo · CTET Paper II — 1 March 2026 (Set O) — Social Studies · exambharo.com/ctet/previous-year-papers/ctet-2026-paper-2-1-mar-set-o-social-studies/
Question paper · CTET
CTET Paper II — 1 March 2026 (Set O) — Social Studies
1 March 2026144 of the paper’s 150 questions+1 for a correct answer, −0 for a wrong one
Left out of the original paper: 6 (any question that needs a figure, symbol or formatting we cannot show, or whose text or answer did not come through cleanly from the official document).
Questions from the Central Board of Secondary Education’s paper of 1 March 2026, . Each question’s answer is under it, hidden until you open it, and the full answer key is at the end. Take the paper as a timed practice test to be scored.
Child Development and Pedagogy
1. An effective strategy for solving ill‑defined problems is :
- (a) Focusing on functional fixedness
- (b) Means‑Ends analysis
- (c) Algorithms
- (d) Learning by rote
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Answer: (b)
2. Which of the following set of qualities characterizes critical thinking ? (i) Ability to question (ii) Ability to self‑reflect (iii) Ability to test previously held assumptions (iv) Ability to think convergently Choose the correct option :
- (a) (i) and (iv)
- (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (d) (i) and (ii)
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Answer: (c)
3. Which of the following statement about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child is correct ?
- (a) While heredity contributes in unfolding of the child’s characteristic traits, the entirety of a child’s development is solely based on environmental factors.
- (b) While heredity provides the genetic blueprint for an individual’s development, the expression of those genes can be influenced by environmental factors.
- (c) Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
- (d) Dispositions are linked with environmental factors but actual development occurs on the basis of heredity.
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Answer: (b)
4. Arpita and Anu give their books to each other since both consider it ‘an equal exchange of favours’. At which level of Kohlberg’s moral development theory are Arpita and Anu ?
- (a) Heteronomous level
- (b) Post‑conventional level
- (c) Conventional level
- (d) Pre‑conventional level
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Answer: (a)
5. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : When unable to ‘make meaning’, efficient readers slow down and reread the text clarifying confusion before continuing further. Reason (R) : Metacognition hinders the process of meaning‑making.
- (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (a)
6. Which of the following sets describe ways in which a school should be inclusive ? (i) Modification of curriculum as required (ii) Expecting students to totally adapt to the school’s culture (iii) Fostering an ethos of care and respect (iv) Opportunities for collaborative learning Choose the correct option :
- (a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
- (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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Answer: (a)
7. Which of the following statement about socialization is correct ?
- (a) Socialization cultivates shared sources of meaning and value.
- (b) Socialization is culture‑independent and context‑neutral.
- (c) Socialization happens only during childhood.
- (d) Norms and beliefs cannot be acquired through socialization process.
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Answer: (a)
8. Role of a teacher in ‘reciprocal teaching’ is characterized by :
- (a) a shift from being a support and guide towards gradual release of responsibility to the students.
- (b) being a mere recipient of the suggestions given by students.
- (c) the position of dominance and sole authority to disseminate the information to students.
- (d) his/her position of being a passive observer throughout the process.
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Answer: (a)
9. An assessment approach aiming to support students’ learning is characterized by :
- (a) Consideration of method of solving the problem along with the outcome.
- (b) Focus on inaccuracies only while ignoring the process and endeavours.
- (c) Exams done at the end of the year through objective type questions.
- (d) Evaluation and marking based on standardized quiz‑based tests.
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Answer: (a)
10. Which of the following is an effective strategy of emotional regulation ?
- (a) Channelling emotions to use them as a source of inspiration and creative endeavours
- (b) Waiting until emotions escalate to the point of losing control
- (c) Reacting impulsively to emotional triggers
- (d) Suppressing emotions in order to conform to social norms
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Answer: (a)
11. Learning about a concept/category is easier if :
- (a) previous knowledge about the concept is not activated.
- (b) concept is represented in abstract and complex ways.
- (c) familiar examples are provided while introducing the concept.
- (d) lots of advanced information is given to create cognitive load.
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Answer: (c)
12. According to Jean Piaget, what is the role of symbolic thought in cognitive development ?
- (a) Symbolic thought develops after cognitive development is complete.
- (b) Symbolic thought impacts cognitive development only in children with language delays.
- (c) Symbolic thought causes mental confusion and hinders cognitive development.
- (d) Symbolic thought facilitates cognitive development by allowing for mental processes like problem‑solving.
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Answer: (d)
13. Which of the following typical characteristics is a child struggling with dysgraphia likely to show ?
- (a) Aggression, frustration and stress
- (b) Impulsiveness; difficulty in concentrating and forgetfulness
- (c) Slow in written work; makes poorly formed letters, has difficulty copying from blackboard
- (d) Withdrawal, guilt and anxiety
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Answer: (c)
14. A teacher is providing learners with the chances to be exposed to and analyze concepts in order to help them understand the content through her support. This is an example of :
- (a) Expository teaching
- (b) Guided discovery
- (c) Pre‑dispositional learning
- (d) Observational modelling
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Answer: (b)
15. Which of the following statements is correct about gender development in contemporary times ?
- (a) Gender is purely and solely determined by an individual’s anatomy at birth.
- (b) Gender exists on a binary concept – one is either male or female.
- (c) Gender identity is influenced by cultural conceptions.
- (d) Gender identity is not influenced by socialization.
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Answer: (c)
16. Which of the following hinders problem‑solving ?
- (a) Breaking down large complex problems into manageable smaller problems
- (b) Fixating on a single trait of a composite problem
- (c) Applying algorithms and heuristics
- (d) Using a solution which was effective in solving a similar problem earlier
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Answer: (b)
17. Activities which ______________ are detrimental to students’ motivation to learn.
- (a) are moderately difficult for students
- (b) connect with real life of students
- (c) cater to students’ needs and interests
- (d) aim at intangible goals decided solely by the teacher
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Answer: (d)
18. Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas on learning, a teacher should :
- (a) encourage students to continually compete with each other.
- (b) prevent integration of cultural knowledge in discussions.
- (c) capitalize on dialogue and group learning during activities.
- (d) discourage verbalization and thinking aloud among students.
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Answer: (c)
19. Jean Piaget gave importance to ____________ in the course of development and learning.
- (a) exam‑centric pedagogy
- (b) conditioning of behaviour
- (c) children’s maturation and readiness to learn
- (d) cultural tools
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Answer: (c)
20. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Teachers should ensure enough ‘wait time’, which is the length of time a teacher pauses, after asking a question. Reason (R) : Diversity is an asset and not an obstacle.
- (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (d)
21. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Children learn most effectively when they are criticized frequently for their mistakes. Reason (R) : Frequent criticism makes children self‑reliant which helps in improving their academic performance.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (b)
22. Inclusion of students belonging to disadvantaged backgrounds requires :
- (a) identity‑based segregation of students.
- (b) consideration of socio‑cultural diversity.
- (c) execution of standardized curriculum.
- (d) tradition of exam‑centered pedagogy.
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Answer: (b)
23. Contemporary theorists believe that childhood is :
- (a) A life stage that is awaiting adulthood.
- (b) A stage associated with divinity, purity and goodness.
- (c) Merely a transitional stage.
- (d) Variable and dynamic.
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Answer: (d)
24. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : A middle school language arts teacher selects stories and clippings from newspapers and magazines that portray men and women in non‑traditional roles. Reason (R) : Countering prevalent gender stereotypes by presenting other models is an effective way to overcome gender bias.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explantion of (A).
- (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (d)
25. The process of bringing back the information stored in memory to current state is called _____________.
- (a) Forgetting
- (b) Decay
- (c) Retrieval
- (d) Attention
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Answer: (c)
26. Which of the following statements about classroom assessment is correct ?
- (a) Use of norm‑referenced assessment that compares performance of the student to that of peers motivates students to learn more meaningfully.
- (b) Focus of assessment should be paper‑pencil assessment rather than non‑written behaviours to maintain objectivity.
- (c) Formative assessment should include tasks which inform teachers about what students know about the concept before they begin teaching.
- (d) Summative assessment does not serve any purpose and should not be undertaken since the process is more important than the final learning outcome.
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Answer: (c)
27. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Adaptations such as audio tapes, use of computer software which provides text‑to‑speech input, extended time to complete assignments, facilitate learning for students who are visually challenged. Reason (R) : Teachers should adapt the curriculum to provide equity and meet the needs of diverse learners.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
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Answer: (a)
28. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Adolescents have difficulty with emotional regulation and inhibiting their impulses and are quite susceptible to peer pressure. Reason (R) : Physiological and hormonal changes during adolescence impact the behaviour of adolescents in a variety of ways.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (c)
29. Gifted children :
- (a) excel in all academic as well as co‑curricular areas.
- (b) exhibit high cognitive abilities as well as skills of social communication.
- (c) get distracted easily and have low concentration span.
- (d) absorb information quickly and accurately.
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Answer: (d)
30. Which of the following statements about language and cognition is not correct as per Lev Vygotsky’s theory ?
- (a) Language development hinders cognitive development.
- (b) Inner speech is used for mental reasoning.
- (c) Language inevitably affects the way a child thinks.
- (d) External speech is used to converse with others.
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Answer: (a)
Social Studies
31. Consider the following statements on the impact of Indigo crop on peasant life : A. When the indigo crop was delivered to the planter after the harvest, a new loan was given to the ryot. B. The price that the peasants got for the indigo they had produced was very low. C. The planters insisted on the best soils for indigo. D. Indigo did not have deep roots and exhausted the soil. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A, C and D are correct.
- (b) Only B, C and D are correct.
- (c) Only A, B and D are correct.
- (d) Only A, B and C are correct.
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Answer: (d)
32. Match the following columns : A. Creation of Andhra Pradesh as a State i. 1956 B. States Reorganisation Commission submitted its first report ii. 1953 C. Gujarat came into existence as a State iii. 1966 D. Haryana became a State iv. 1960 Choose the correct option :
- (a) A‑iii, B‑i, C‑iv, D‑ii
- (b) A‑i, B‑ii, C‑iii, D‑iv
- (c) A‑ii, B‑i, C‑iv, D‑iii
- (d) A‑iv, B‑iii, C‑ii, D‑i
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Answer: (c)
33. The Buddha told the Vajjis that they would continue to prosper as long as : A. They held frequent public assemblies. B. They met and acted together. C. They followed established rules. D. Vajji women were not held by force or captured. Choose the correct option :
- (a) A and C are correct.
- (b) A, B, C and D are correct.
- (c) A, B and C are correct.
- (d) A and B are correct.
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Answer: (b)
34. Which of the following is the correct sequence in which states were annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse, from the earliest to the last ?
- (a) Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
- (b) Sambalpur, Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Jhansi
- (c) Sambalpur, Satara, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi
- (d) Satara, Nagpur, Udaipur, Sambalpur, Jhansi
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Answer: (a)
35. Which of the following was a tax in the form of forced labour during the reign of the Cholas ?
- (a) Vetti
- (b) Peruvazhi
- (c) Kadamai
- (d) Porvari
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Answer: (a)
36. Read the given statements (A) and (B) : (A) : During the nineteenth century, Christian missionaries began setting up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children. (B) : At the same time, the poor began leaving their villages to look for jobs that were opening up in the cities. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Both (A) and (B) are true.
- (b) Both (A) and (B) are false.
- (c) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
- (d) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
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Answer: (a)
37. Match the following : Crop/Item Site A. Green gram i. Koldihwa B. Black gram ii. Chirand C. Fragmented animal bone iii. Paiyampalli D. Dog iv. Burzahom Choose the correct option :
- (a) A‑i, B‑iii, C‑ii, D‑iv
- (b) A‑ii, B‑iii, C‑i, D‑iv
- (c) A‑iii, B‑i, C‑ii, D‑iv
- (d) A‑i, B‑ii, C‑iii, D‑iv
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Answer: (c)
38. The Paramhansa Mandali was founded in 1840 to work for the abolition of which of the following issues ?
- (a) Sati system
- (b) Child marriage
- (c) Widow marriage
- (d) Caste system
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Answer: (d)
39. The Ahoms migrated to the Brahmaputra Valley in the thirteenth century from the present‑day ___________ .
- (a) Myanmar
- (b) Nepal
- (c) Bangladesh
- (d) Bhutan
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Answer: (a)
40. Match the following in the context of earliest kingdoms : A B A. Magadha i. Vaishali B. Vajji ii. Rajgriha C. Avanti iii. Taxila D. Gandhara iv. Ujjain Choose the correct option :
- (a) A‑i, B‑iii, C‑iv, D‑ii
- (b) A‑iv, B‑ii, C‑iii, D‑i
- (c) A‑ii, B‑i, C‑iv, D‑iii
- (d) A‑iii, B‑iv, C‑i, D‑ii
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Answer: (c)
41. From the following, how many pairs are correctly matched as mentioned in the Pallava inscriptions ? I. Sabha – Assembly of Brahmin landowners II. Ur – Organisation of Merchants III. Nagaram – Village assembly Choose the correct option :
- (a) All three
- (b) Only one
- (c) Only two
- (d) None of these
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Answer: (b)
42. Who said, “We must indeed become nawabs ourselves” ?
- (a) Major Lawrence
- (b) Warren Hastings
- (c) Harry Verelst
- (d) Robert Clive
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Answer: (d)
43. Which one of the following is not true for the Indian National Congress during the colonial period ?
- (a) It demanded a greater voice for Indians in the government and in the administration.
- (b) It wanted the Legislative Councils to be more representative.
- (c) It demanded the civil service examinations be held in London, not in India.
- (d) In the first twenty years it was “moderate” in its objectives and methods.
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Answer: (c)
44. Which of the following statements are true about widow remarriage law in colonial India ? A. A law permitting widow marriage was passed in 1858. B. The number of widows who remarried increased. C. Many conservative groups continued to oppose this new law. D. Those who remarried were not easily accepted in society. Choose the correct option :
- (a) A and D
- (b) B and D
- (c) C and D
- (d) A and C
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Answer: (c)
45. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in the dry season. Reason (R) : Trees adapt according to climatic conditions and shed their leaves to conserve water in dry season.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (d)
46. What do we call the streams of water flowing constantly on the ocean surface in definite directions ?
- (a) Tides
- (b) Currents
- (c) Tsunami
- (d) Waves
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Answer: (b)
47. What causes the formation of mushroom rocks ?
- (a) Deposition
- (b) Erosion
- (c) Weathering
- (d) Earthquake
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Answer: (b)
48. Consider the following pairs and identify how many of the given pairs are correctly matched : Type of forest Tree found A. Tropial Rain Forest — Mahogany B. Tropical Deciduous Forest — Rosewood C. Thorny Bushes — Deodar D. Mangrove Forests — Sundari Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only three
- (b) Only two
- (c) All four
- (d) Only one
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Answer: (b)
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct about meteoroids ? A. They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. B. It is believed that they are parts of a planet which exploded many years ago. C. These are small pieces of rocks which move around the Sun and sometimes they come close to the Earth and tend to drop upon it. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only C
- (b) Only B
- (c) Only A
- (d) Only A and C
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Answer: (a)
50. A population pyramid narrow at the base and higher in size reflects : A. High death rates of infants B. Low birth rates C. Increased life expectancy D. Decreased death rates Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A, B and C
- (b) Only A, C and D
- (c) Only B, C and D
- (d) Only A and B
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Answer: (c)
51. Agriculture includes __________. A. Growing vegetables B. Pisciculture C. Horticulture D. Rearing of livestock Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A, C and D
- (b) Only A and B
- (c) Only A
- (d) Only A, B and C
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Answer: (a)
52. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Wet clothes take a longer time to dry on a humid day. Reason (R) : The rate of evaporation increases on a humid day.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
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Answer: (d)
53. Consider the following statements about migration : A. Migration has no effect on population size as people emigrate from the country and almost an equal number of them immigrate to the country. B. International migration is largely from the less developed nations to the more developed nations. C. Sudan is an example of a country that has experienced a loss in population due to emigration. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A and C are correct.
- (b) Only A and B are correct.
- (c) All A, B and C are correct.
- (d) Only B and C are correct.
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Answer: (d)
54. The opening time of Central Government offices in India is 09:00 a.m. IST. What will be the local time of opening of the Central Government offices located at 78º 30′ East Longitude near Hyderabad and 92º 45′ East Longitude near Aizawl, respectively ?
- (a) 09:41 a.m. and 08:44 a.m. respectively
- (b) 08:44 a.m. and 09:41 a.m. respectively
- (c) 09:16 a.m. and 08:19 a.m. respectively
- (d) 08:19 a.m. and 09:16 a.m. respectively
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Answer: (b)
55. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Polar easterlies in the northern hemisphere move towards the right direction. Reason (R) : The Earth rotating on its axis affects the direction of the winds.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (a)
56. Which of the following statements is true about heat zones of the Earth ?
- (a) All the areas lying between the Equator and the Arctic Circle are called temperate zone.
- (b) The mid‑day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
- (c) In the whole Southern hemisphere the Sun does not rise much above the horizon, Sun rays are always slanting here.
- (d) The mid‑day Sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes in between the Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle.
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Answer: (b)
57. Which of the following statements is/are correct for temperate zones ? A. Temperate zones have moderate temperature. B. The mid‑day Sun never shines overhead on any latitude in this zone. C. It spans between the Arctic Circle and the Equator in the Northern hemisphere only. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A and B
- (b) Only A and C
- (c) Only A
- (d) All A, B and C
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Answer: (a)
58. In which state would you find the sea coast where Vasco da Gama first landed after discovering the sea route from Europe to India ?
- (a) Karnataka
- (b) Andhra Pradesh
- (c) Kerala
- (d) Tamil Nadu
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Answer: (c)
59. “An African‑American refused to give up her seat on a bus to a white man in 1955 and the incident led to the Civil Rights Movement in USA.” Who was this person ?
- (a) Rosa Luxemburg
- (b) Rosa Parks
- (c) Noam Chomsky
- (d) Nelson Mandela
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Answer: (b)
60. The most distinctive aspect about the tribal societies is that there is very little ___________ among them.
- (a) heterogeneity
- (b) hierarchy
- (c) diversity
- (d) disunity
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Answer: (b)
61. Consider the following statements : (A) Enforcement of laws is even more important when the law seeks to protect the weak from the strong. (B) Markets everywhere tend to be exploitative of workers only. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only (B) is correct.
- (b) Only (A) is correct.
- (c) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
- (d) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.
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Answer: (b)
62. The National Medical Commission’s Code of Medical Ethics states every physician should prescribe drugs that come under ___________ medicines.
- (a) Generic
- (b) International
- (c) Superfluous
- (d) Preventive
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Answer: (a)
63. What would you commonly associate a ginning mill with ?
- (a) Wheat flour
- (b) Sugar
- (c) Cotton bales
- (d) Sunflower
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Answer: (c)
64. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are being used in India since 2004 for all general elections. It mainly saves ___________.
- (a) approximately 1,50,000 trees that are required to be cut to make ballot papers for every general election
- (b) the energy and efforts of local public
- (c) the time of the voters and the Election Commission
- (d) the money transferred illegally for getting votes
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Answer: (a)
65. Which mechanism in a democratic country puts a limit on the powers of the government ?
- (a) Presence of pressure groups
- (b) Multi‑party system
- (c) Regular elections
- (d) People asserting their rights
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Answer: (c)
66. Which among the following statements is/are true ? A. Women are emotional, is a common gender stereotype. B. The concepts of purity and pollution are associated with caste system. C. English is a superior language, is a prejudiced statement. D. Recognition of plurality of religions is not a feature of diversity in India. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only B and D
- (b) A, B and C
- (c) Only B
- (d) Only A
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Answer: (b)
67. A stereotypical viewpoint regards housework as ____________.
- (a) women’s natural work
- (b) time‑consuming for women
- (c) difficult for women
- (d) valuable work that women do
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Answer: (a)
68. Which of the following are features of the Indian Constitution ? A. It offers special privileges for the supremacy of the judiciary. B. It adopts universal adult franchise. C. It guarantees equality before the law to all citizens. D. It offers special privileges to the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians. Choose the correct option :
- (a) A, B and C only
- (b) A, B and D only
- (c) B, C and D only
- (d) A, C and D only
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Answer: (c)
69. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are given to every arrested person under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution ? A. The right to be informed of the offence for which he/she is being arrested. B. The right to be presented before a magistrate within 48 hours of arrest. C. The right not to be ill‑treated or tortured during arrest or in custody. D. The right of women and children not to be arrested. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only B, C and D are correct.
- (b) Only A and D are correct.
- (c) Only A and B are correct.
- (d) Only A and C are correct.
Show answer
Answer: (d)
70. Which part of the Indian Constitution serves as a guide to the Independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses ?
- (a) Fundamental Rights
- (b) Fundamental Duties
- (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
- (d) Federalism
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Answer: (c)
71. Which statement is/are correct regarding evaluation ? A. According to the National Education Policy 2020, the evaluation of children will be creative and multidimensional (360 degree) in a holistic manner. B. Formative assessment is competency‑based, it promotes learning among students. C. Criterion‑referenced assessment refers to how a student scores in comparison to other students. D. Norm‑referenced assessment refers to how a student’s score compares to apre‑determined standard. Choose the correct option :
- (a) A, C and D only
- (b) A, B, C and D
- (c) A and D only
- (d) A only
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Answer: (b)
72. What should be the sequence the students must follow to prepare a project on the theme, ‘Role of Government in Health System’ ? A. Presenting the findings B. Deciding on the objectives C. Planning of collection of data D. Finding the specific sources of data Choose the correct option :
- (a) B, C, D, A
- (b) A, C, B, D
- (c) A, B, C, D
- (d) B, D, C, A
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Answer: (a)
73. Which of the following sources will provide primary information ‘to teach about challenges faced by women at workplace’ ?
- (a) Biographies
- (b) Personal interviews
- (c) Textbooks
- (d) Newspaper articles
Show answer
Answer: (b)
74. Which of the following methods of teaching social science involves students to go beyond textbooks ? A. Project work B. Lecture C. Questioning D. Demonstration Choose the correct option :
- (a) A, B and C
- (b) A, C and D
- (c) A and B
- (d) B and C
Show answer
Answer: (b)
75. Which one of the following questions will develop critical or logical thinking in students ? A. Open‑ended questions B. Closed‑ended questions C. Exploratory questions D. Convergent questions Choose the correct option :
- (a) B, C and D
- (b) A, C and D
- (c) A, B and D
- (d) A, B and C
Show answer
Answer: (b)
76. What is the main objective of peer assessment in the evaluation ?
- (a) Enabling students to learn to assess and provide constructive feedback.
- (b) Making the evaluation process simple and easy for the teacher.
- (c) Strengthening social relationships while providing feedback to improve performance of peers.
- (d) Providing a structured learning process to critique peer students.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
77. During a discussion on the topic “How Weather Forecasts Help Us” in a social studies class, a teacher may :
- (a) show a PowerPoint presentation containing the summary of textbook contents.
- (b) assign the role of persons involved in different rural and urban professions to students.
- (c) show a news clip on weather forecasting.
- (d) ask students to draw pictures of different weather conditions.
Show answer
Answer: (b)
78. While discussing gender roles in the classroom a teacher should : A. Suggest different professions for males and females. B. Offer different types of education to boys and girls. C. Lay emphasis on challenging gender stereotypes in one’s everyday life. Choose the correct option :
- (a) A and B
- (b) B and C
- (c) A and C
- (d) Only C
Show answer
Answer: (d)
79. A learner is continuously getting low marks in social science. Which of the following assessments is required to understand the difficulties ? A. Placement B. Summative C. Diagnostic D. Formative Choose the correct option :
- (a) A and D
- (b) Only B
- (c) C and D
- (d) A and B
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Answer: (c)
80. Ambika wants to teach her class about land features, ocean currents, volcanoes and climate. Which of the following teaching‑learning material should she choose ?
- (a) Working models, maps, globe
- (b) Charts, scrapbooks, graphs
- (c) Graphs, pictures, flashcards
- (d) Timelines, blackboard, specimens
Show answer
Answer: (a)
81. The objectives of teaching history are to : A. illustrate the sources used to reconstruct history. B. appreciate the skills and knowledge of early societies. C. identify archaeological evidences and making deductions from them. D. remember all the dates, places and persons whose details are discussed in textbooks. Choose the correct option :
- (a) B, C and D
- (b) A, B and D
- (c) A, C and D
- (d) A, B and C
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Answer: (d)
82. Consider statements (A) and (B) : (A) Cooperative learning and collaborative learning are two different methods to teach social sciences. (B) In a classroom, each student prepared a presentation on the theme “Our Food” and contributed to the overall theme. This is an example of collaborative learning. Choose the correct option :
- (a) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
- (b) Only (A) is correct.
- (c) Only (B) is correct.
- (d) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
83. The teacher tells the students that “the temperature decreases with the increase in height up to a certain level of the atmosphere”. Then the students solve problems related to the temperature of different places located at different latitudes. This is an example of ____________.
- (a) Constructivist approach
- (b) Interdisciplinary approach
- (c) Deductive approach
- (d) Inductive approach
Show answer
Answer: (c)
84. Sonu is a visually disabled student of class VII. With reference to this, choose the correct option from the statements given below :
- (a) Social science teacher must modify her teaching and assessment strategies to include him in the normal class.
- (b) He must be in a special school.
- (c) All students of the class should be sympathetic towards him.
- (d) He can study in a normal school, but he should be promoted to the next class without any examination.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
85. Suppose a middle school social studies teacher assigns a project work on Shivaji. Which of the following would be highly relevant to develop critical thinking ? A. Prescribed textbook B. Books from school library C. Details from more than one Internet website D. Information shared by the teacher in class E. Information shared in social networking applications Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A, C, D and E
- (b) Only A, B and C
- (c) Only A, B, C and D
- (d) Only A and D
Show answer
Answer: (c)
86. Which of the questions or activities promote analytical thinking and creativity ? A. The Harappan civilization settled near which river ? B. Make a map of your house. C. Why are day and night not equal throughout the year ? D. What is the purpose of celebrating festivals ? Choose the correct option :
- (a) Only A and B
- (b) A, C and D only
- (c) Only C and D
- (d) Only A and D
Show answer
Answer: (c)
87. Which of the following could be the aim of a social science teacher ? A. Making students respond to desired situations. B. Accepting the student as an active learner. C. Controlling the free expression of students to maintain discipline. D. Giving importance to the ambitious behaviour of the students, motivating them to become ambitious. Choose the correct option :
- (a) B only
- (b) A, C and D only
- (c) A, B, C and D
- (d) A only
Show answer
Answer: (a)
88. Which of the following would be the correct sequence of the steps in the 5E model lesson plan ?
- (a) Evaluate, explain, explore, engage, elaborate
- (b) Engage, explore, explain, elaborate, evaluate
- (c) Explore, engage, explain, elaborate, evaluate
- (d) Explain, elaborate, evaluate, engage, explore
Show answer
Answer: (b)
89. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : In the classroom, concepts should be explained to the students through the lived experiences of individuals and communities. Reason (R) : Teaching generalised notes on cultural, social and class differences may generate their own biases, prejudices and attitudes in classroom.
- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
90. Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A) : Explaining about civilization and culture, the teacher tells the children that social studies is related to culture and civilization and at the same time it affirms the scientific approach. Reason (R) : Social science has nothing to do with art. Science, when combined with society, becomes social science; therefore, it is related only to science.
- (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (b) Both (A) and (R) are false.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Show answer
Answer: (b)
Language I (English)
PassageFor questions 91–96
A silly young cricket, accustomed to sing Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring, Began to complain when he found that, at home, His cupboard was empty, and winter was come. Not a crumb to be found On the snow‑covered ground; Not a flower could he see, Not a leaf on a tree. “Oh ! what will become,” says the cricket, “of me ?” At last by starvation and famine made bold, All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold. Away he set off to a miserly ant, To see if, to keep him alive, he would grant Him shelter from rain, And a mouthful of grain. He wished only to borrow; He’d repay it tomorrow; If not, he must die of starvation and sorrow.
91. What did the cricket do in summer ?
- (a) Sat and played
- (b) Sang
- (c) Slept and relaxed
- (d) Slogged like an ant
Show answer
Answer: (b)
92. Study the following statements : A. During winter, it was difficult to dance in the snow‑covered ground. B. However, the cricket could have enjoyed skating.
- (a) A is right and B is wrong.
- (b) B is right and A is wrong.
- (c) Both A and B are right.
- (d) Both A and B are wrong.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
93. What made the cricket go to the ant ?
- (a) Starvation and famine
- (b) Empty cupboard
- (c) Piles of grains at ant’s place
- (d) Approaching winter
Show answer
Answer: (a)
94. Which genre does the poem belong to ?
- (a) Sonnet
- (b) Epic
- (c) Fable
- (d) Lyric
Show answer
Answer: (c)
95. What is the theme of the poem ?
- (a) We should always keep slogging like the ant.
- (b) We should always pursue our hobbies.
- (c) If we don't care for our future, we will eventually suffer.
- (d) We should keep partying and dancing.
Show answer
Answer: (c)
96. ‘... sunny months of gay summer and spring.’ Identify the figure of speech used in the above line
- (a) Metaphor
- (b) Alliteration
- (c) Simile
- (d) Personification Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
Show answer
Answer: (b)
97. Language classroom often focuses on group and pair work. This also helps in developing an important value associated with an inclusive classroom, which is :
- (a) Sympathy
- (b) Competition
- (c) Collaboration
- (d) Envy
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Answer: (c)
98. One day you bring some objects to the class and ask the children to name them. You write their responses on the blackboard and tell them that all these names are used for some objects which are called ‘nouns’ and then give its definition. The method you are using is called :
- (a) Deductive method
- (b) Incidental method
- (c) Inductive method
- (d) Direct Method
Show answer
Answer: (c)
99. When monolingual speakers move from formal to informal modes of speech in the same spoken or gestured idea, it is called :
- (a) Code‑mixing
- (b) Dialect
- (c) Code‑switching
- (d) Slang
Show answer
Answer: (c)
100. Some words can have more than one meaning. The meaning of words in a particular language relates to which of the following ?
- (a) Syntax
- (b) Phonology
- (c) Morphology
- (d) Semantics
Show answer
Answer: (d)
101. The purpose of remedial teaching is to :
- (a) introduce new language items.
- (b) teach again, the language items not properly learnt.
- (c) test recently taught items.
- (d) teach again, the language items already learnt.
Show answer
Answer: (b)
102. Skinner opined that children would repeat sounds if they were followed by a pleasurable response. This viewpoint has its foundation in :
- (a) the nativist theory.
- (b) observational learning.
- (c) the language acquisition device.
- (d) operant conditioning.
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Answer: (d)
103. Based on your observation to develop a particular skill, you decide to use the Direct method in your class. For which skill will you use this method ?
- (a) Listening skills
- (b) Speaking skills
- (c) Writing skills
- (d) Reading skills
Show answer
Answer: (b)
104. Which among the following theorists hypothesized that children have a built‑in readiness to learn language ?
- (a) Skinner
- (b) Jim Cummins
- (c) Freud
- (d) Chomsky
Show answer
Answer: (d)
105. To learn about the system of rules that govern how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences, you need to study :
- (a) Syntax
- (b) Morphology
- (c) Phonetics
- (d) Semantics
Show answer
Answer: (a)
106. If children hear two languages spoken around them, this exposure to two languages will :
- (a) not make any difference.
- (b) put children at a disadvantage.
- (c) put children at an advantage.
- (d) confuse them.
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Answer: (c)
107. Input is defined as the _____________ a learner hears and responds to for its meaning.
- (a) Language
- (b) Communication
- (c) Conversation
- (d) Rules
Show answer
Answer: (a)
108. Your friend is asked to teach functional grammar. She comes to you for help. You tell her that functional grammar means teaching grammar in/through :
- (a) context.
- (b) rules supported with examples.
- (c) explanation of literary content.
- (d) rules in isolation.
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Answer: (a)
109. A ‘Recall‑Type’ test is a test of :
- (a) Thinking ability
- (b) Memory
- (c) Understanding
- (d) Imagination
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Answer: (b)
110. Children are motivated by activities that are :
- (a) meaningful to them.
- (b) planned by an adult.
- (c) meaningful to teachers.
- (d) planned by children.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
111. You want to identify the deficiencies and difficulties of the learners in your class. Which of the following evaluations would you use for the purpose ?
- (a) Criterion‑referenced evaluation
- (b) Summative evaluation
- (c) Diagnostic evaluation
- (d) Follow‑up evaluation
Show answer
Answer: (c)
PassageFor questions 112–118
Aimee had a painful childhood. She was born in 1975 with no shin bones. The doctors therfore had to amputate both her legs so that she would be able to walk later in life. Unfortunately, she had to undergo a number of surgeries at the age of two, five and eight, and had to spend a long time in a hospital. Aimee grew up with artificial legs. Her mother, however, treated her as a self‑sufficient person who did not require any special treatment. She was gradually able to learn how to move and run, and even play various sports like softball and go swimming, hiking and skiing. When she was in high school, Aimee discovered her passion for athletics. Towards the end of high school, she participated in the Boston track and field meet for the disabled. On arriving in Boston, she was surprised to discover that she was the only athlete wearing wooden legs. The rest of the athletes had metal, shock‑absorbent legs that she didn’t even know existed. Not to mention that all the other athletes had at least one normal leg. This fact did not shake her determination; instead it made her push herself harder to succeed. And succeed she did — she not only won, she also broke a national record in doing so. She decided to enter the long jump competition next, an event that double amputees were technically ‘not supposed’ to enter. A year later, she broke the world record in it. Aimee was not happy with the way prosthetic legs were designed. So she invited innovators to combine science and art, and design unconventional prosthetic legs. She was soon wearing cheetah legs, handcrafted wooden legs, jellyfish legs and many more. She now began getting invitations from different parts of the world to talk about her life story and designer legs. The fashion and beauty industry took note of Aimee’s talent and beauty and asked her to model for, or endorse beauty products. Today she is a global model for a leading brand of cosmetics.
112. The doctors amputated Aimee’s legs because ____________.
- (a) they were disfigured
- (b) they were not of the same length
- (c) they were not strong
- (d) they had no bones
Show answer
Answer: (d)
113. When Aimee began to use designer legs, she caught the attention of ____________.
- (a) sports committees
- (b) designers
- (c) photographers
- (d) the fashion and beauty industry
Show answer
Answer: (d)
114. Aimee had a painful childhood because : A. both her legs did not have bones. B. she underwent a lot of surgeries.
- (a) Only A is correct
- (b) Only B is correct
- (c) Both A and B are correct
- (d) Both A and B are incorrect
Show answer
Answer: (c)
115. Which of the following statements is true ?
- (a) The Boston meet was for double amputees only.
- (b) Aimee’s mother gave her special care when she was a young child.
- (c) Soon Aimee started promoting health products.
- (d) At the Boston meet, Aimee was the only one on wooden legs.
Show answer
Answer: (d)
116. At the Boston sports meet, Aimee discovered that all the other athletes had only one artificial leg. That did not discourage her. Instead, she began to do something. What was it ?
- (a) She decided to enter long jump competition next.
- (b) She decided to participate in athletics.
- (c) She decided to have designer legs.
- (d) She decided to enter the fashion industry.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
117. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘self‑sufficient’ ?
- (a) Independent
- (b) Needy
- (c) Dependent
- (d) Helpless
Show answer
Answer: (a)
118. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the word, ‘unconventional’ ?
- (a) Innovative
- (b) Eccentric
- (c) Traditional
- (d) Unusual
Show answer
Answer: (c)
Language II (English)
PassageFor questions 121–127
Digital transformation as “the most remarkable change of our era” found its echo in many parts of the G20 Bali Leaders’ Declaration. From economy to sustainability, all were looped in the strings of digital innovation. 2 “The proper use of digital technologies can become a force multiplier in the decades‑long global fight against poverty. Digital solutions can also be helpful in the fight against climate change — as we all saw in the examples of remote‑working and paperless green offices during COVID.” Citing India’s experience of the past few years, our Prime Minister said, “If we make digital architecture inclusive, it can bring about socio‑economic transformation. Digital use can bring scale and speed. These solutions are based on open source, open APIs, open standards, which are interoperable and public. This is our approach based on the digital revolution that is going on in India today.” 3 The G20 Bali Leaders’ Declaration noted, “The COVID‑19 pandemic has accelerated the transformation of the digital ecosystem and digital economy. We acknowledge that affordable and high‑quality digital connectivity is essential for digital inclusion and digital transformation, while a resilient, safe and secure online environment is necessary to enhance confidence and trust in the digital economy. We recognise the importance of policies to create an enabling, inclusive, open, fair and non‑discriminatory digital economy that fosters the application of new technologies, allows businesses and entrepreneurs to thrive, and protects and empowers consumers, while addressing the challenges related to digital divides, privacy, data protection, intellectual property rights, and online safety.” 4 The G20 Indonesia Digital Economy Working Group (DEWG), thus, established the G20 Digital Innovation Network (DIN) to enhance engagement among global innovation builders and drivers such as start‑ups, venture capitalists and corporations. The main idea was to establish the G20 DIN as a launching pad for the Digital Economy, labelling it as post‑pandemic recovery and beyond.
121. Study the following statements carefully marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from the alternatives given below. Assertion (A) : We need to design clear policies to create an enabling, inclusive, and non‑discriminatory digital economy. Reason (R) : The pandemic has promoted the usage of digital ecosystem and digital economy.
- (a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
- (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Show answer
Answer: (d)
123. Study the following statements : A. Success of digital technology depends on high quality digital connectivity. B. Online environment needs to be safe and secure.
- (a) B is right and A is wrong.
- (b) A is right and B is wrong.
- (c) Both A and B are right.
- (d) Both A and B are wrong.
Show answer
Answer: (c)
124. Which of the following words mean the same as ‘fosters’ (para 3) ?
- (a) squelches
- (b) encourages
- (c) serves
- (d) stifles
Show answer
Answer: (b)
125. Read the following statements carefully and choose the most appropriate alternative : A. G20 enhances engagement among Global Innovation builders as start‑ups B. G20 is a launching pad for digital economy.
- (a) B is correct and A is wrong.
- (b) Both A and B are correct.
- (c) Both A and B are wrong.
- (d) A is correct and B is wrong.
Show answer
Answer: (b)
127. Which of the following is the appropriate word from para 2 which means the same as ‘metamorphosis’ ?
- (a) inclusion
- (b) transformation
- (c) application
- (d) importance
Show answer
Answer: (b)
PassageFor questions 128–135
The Japanese economy is being driven by small and medium‑sized enterprises offering new ways of doing things. Working hard to deliver quality products and services is hard‑wired into every good Japanese business. But those principles are especially important to the nation’s booming small and medium‑sized enterprises (SMEs) and niche companies. An incredible 3·58 million SMEs make up 99·7% of all Japanese businesses, and they play a massive role — by doing all the little things right. Utilizing an agile corporate structure, many such firms are thriving, whether supplying business contracts or selling direct to customers. With Asia‑Pacific neighbours leading the way in mass production and lower‑cost models, Japanese firms have been taking a more focused and customer‑centric approach. “A large number of manufacturers have shifted towards niche fields. Although Japanese products cannot remain competitive regarding cost and volume, they excel where high quality is needed,” said Yoshio Komuro, CEO and President of precision metal rollers firm, Rikazai Co. Ltd. Mamoru Iwata, President of manufacturing prototype specialists, Sanken Kogyo Co. Ltd. said that adaptability is a crucial factor in his firm’s success. “As we do not work with mass production, client needs change from time to time and as such, our focus of production changes often,” Iwata said. “Ensuring that clients are happy and satisfied is our number one priority.”
128. The passage talks about :
- (a) Asia‑Pacific business models.
- (b) innovative Japanese enterprises.
- (c) elements required for flourishing business.
- (d) best business model.
Show answer
Answer: (b)
129. What are the bases of Japanese businesses ?
- (a) Good service and quality products
- (b) Mass production and low cost
- (c) Demand and supply
- (d) Cost control but quality compromise
Show answer
Answer: (a)
130. Japanese firms believe in the principle of :
- (a) doing most of all little things right.
- (b) doing new things.
- (c) doing all little things right.
- (d) doing only few important things right.
Show answer
Answer: (c)
131. Japanese products are not in competition with other countries in terms of :
- (a) mass production, low‑cost models.
- (b) customer‑centric approach.
- (c) cost and volume.
- (d) high profit margins.
Show answer
Answer: (c)
134. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : A. Firms are utilizing an agile corporate structure. B. A large number of manufacturers have shifted to niche fields.
- (a) A is true, but B is false.
- (b) A is correct but not related to B.
- (c) Both A and B are false.
- (d) Both A and B are true but not connected to each other.
Show answer
Answer: (d)
135. According to the passage, what is not a crucial factor in a firm’s success ? Select the most appropriate combination. A. Adaptability B. Mass production C. Change in focus of production D. Client satisfaction E. New offerings
- (a) A, B, E
- (b) C, D, E
- (c) A, C, D
- (d) A, D, E Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
136. As a teacher, you prefer to use audio‑visual aids and physical activities in your teaching. You do this because you find that they :
- (a) provide relief to you in the classroom.
- (b) divert the attention of the learners.
- (c) facilitate effective assessment.
- (d) utilize maximum number of senses to enhance learning.
Show answer
Answer: (d)
137. You go through the students’ notebooks and give remarks. This is an example of :
- (a) Daily remarks
- (b) Evaluation
- (c) Feedback
- (d) Notebook checking
Show answer
Answer: (c)
138. Good speakers have the ability of :
- (a) Paraphrasing
- (b) Quick analysis
- (c) Understanding
- (d) Translating
Show answer
Answer: (b)
139. Rakesh, a student in your class, often makes errors in tense forms. To help him overcome this problem, you can :
- (a) scold Rakesh to make him learn the rules.
- (b) ask Rakesh to write the rules ten times in his notebook.
- (c) explain to him the rules of grammar.
- (d) take up many examples for the entire class and pay special attention to Rakesh.
Show answer
Answer: (d)
140. You are in the process of selecting the most suitable teaching aid. Which one of the following is not relevant in respect of selection of correct teaching aids ?
- (a) It need not have specific educational values.
- (b) It should be child‑centered.
- (c) It should be in sync with the topic being taught in the class.
- (d) It should be simple and easy to use.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
141. Which of the following are not related to emergent literacy ?
- (a) Understanding that print carries meaning
- (b) Early phonological awareness
- (c) Taking note
- (d) Basic alphabet knowledge
Show answer
Answer: (c)
142. Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education ?
- (a) “Oh ! How can I teach children who cannot even hear ?”
- (b) “Wow ! It will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive.”
- (c) “Oh ! How will such children mix with other children of the class ?”
- (d) “Oh ! There should be a separate section for such children.”
Show answer
Answer: (b)
143. You love to have classroom discourse because it :
- (a) does not give importance to learner’s contributions.
- (b) brings clarity and distinctiveness in the speech.
- (c) hardly prompts the learners to think.
- (d) gives you power as a teacher.
Show answer
Answer: (b)
144. Which among the following highlights the significant difference in Vygotsky’s and Piaget’s theory ?
- (a) The relationship between language and thought
- (b) The constructive/objective role of children in the process of meaning‑making
- (c) Understanding children as active/passive learners
- (d) Understanding that learning is a simple/complex process
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Answer: (a)
145. The most important element in Communicative Language Teaching is :
- (a) meaning.
- (b) the structure of language.
- (c) the skill of writing.
- (d) memorizing the rules of grammar.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
146. Which speaker would be most likely to engage in code‑mixing ?
- (a) Satyaveer, a monolingual adult
- (b) Garv, a bilingual child
- (c) Meera, a bilingual adult
- (d) Arpita, a monolingual child
Show answer
Answer: (b)
147. You observe that Mandakini, a student of class IV, often makes mistakes while using tenses. You can help Mandakini overcome this problem by :
- (a) giving her real life situations or examples where she can use tenses.
- (b) asking her to memorize rules of tenses thoroughly.
- (c) explaining or writing rules of grammar.
- (d) asking Mandakini to write tenses 10 times in her notebook.
Show answer
Answer: (a)
148. A language teacher wants to conduct a problem‑solving method effectively in her class. She should :
- (a) ask the students to consult their parents.
- (b) look at the students’ activities from a distance.
- (c) encourage divergent thinking.
- (d) participate actively in the process.
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Answer: (c)
149. A listener listens to the main idea, predicting, drawing inferences and summarizing. What are these strategies known as ?
- (a) Bottom‑up processes
- (b) Top‑down processes
- (c) Cognitive processes
- (d) Analytical processes
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Answer: (b)
150. Phonemic awareness refers to :
- (a) the ability to identify and manipulate phonemes in spoken words.
- (b) the ability to establish relation between phonemes and graphemes.
- (c) reading words accurately and fluently.
- (d) writing with correct spellings.
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Answer: (b)
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Answer key
Answer key as marked in the Central Board of Secondary Education’s response sheet. “—” means the sheet did not show it clearly.
Child Development and Pedagogy
- Q 1
- (b)
- Q 2
- (c)
- Q 3
- (b)
- Q 4
- (a)
- Q 5
- (a)
- Q 6
- (a)
- Q 7
- (a)
- Q 8
- (a)
- Q 9
- (a)
- Q 10
- (a)
- Q 11
- (c)
- Q 12
- (d)
- Q 13
- (c)
- Q 14
- (b)
- Q 15
- (c)
- Q 16
- (b)
- Q 17
- (d)
- Q 18
- (c)
- Q 19
- (c)
- Q 20
- (d)
- Q 21
- (b)
- Q 22
- (b)
- Q 23
- (d)
- Q 24
- (d)
- Q 25
- (c)
- Q 26
- (c)
- Q 27
- (a)
- Q 28
- (c)
- Q 29
- (d)
- Q 30
- (a)
Social Studies
- Q 31
- (d)
- Q 32
- (c)
- Q 33
- (b)
- Q 34
- (a)
- Q 35
- (a)
- Q 36
- (a)
- Q 37
- (c)
- Q 38
- (d)
- Q 39
- (a)
- Q 40
- (c)
- Q 41
- (b)
- Q 42
- (d)
- Q 43
- (c)
- Q 44
- (c)
- Q 45
- (d)
- Q 46
- (b)
- Q 47
- (b)
- Q 48
- (b)
- Q 49
- (a)
- Q 50
- (c)
- Q 51
- (a)
- Q 52
- (d)
- Q 53
- (d)
- Q 54
- (b)
- Q 55
- (a)
- Q 56
- (b)
- Q 57
- (a)
- Q 58
- (c)
- Q 59
- (b)
- Q 60
- (b)
- Q 61
- (b)
- Q 62
- (a)
- Q 63
- (c)
- Q 64
- (a)
- Q 65
- (c)
- Q 66
- (b)
- Q 67
- (a)
- Q 68
- (c)
- Q 69
- (d)
- Q 70
- (c)
- Q 71
- (b)
- Q 72
- (a)
- Q 73
- (b)
- Q 74
- (b)
- Q 75
- (b)
- Q 76
- (a)
- Q 77
- (b)
- Q 78
- (d)
- Q 79
- (c)
- Q 80
- (a)
- Q 81
- (d)
- Q 82
- (a)
- Q 83
- (c)
- Q 84
- (a)
- Q 85
- (c)
- Q 86
- (c)
- Q 87
- (a)
- Q 88
- (b)
- Q 89
- (a)
- Q 90
- (b)
Language I (English)
- Q 91
- (b)
- Q 92
- (a)
- Q 93
- (a)
- Q 94
- (c)
- Q 95
- (c)
- Q 96
- (b)
- Q 97
- (c)
- Q 98
- (c)
- Q 99
- (c)
- Q 100
- (d)
- Q 101
- (b)
- Q 102
- (d)
- Q 103
- (b)
- Q 104
- (d)
- Q 105
- (a)
- Q 106
- (c)
- Q 107
- (a)
- Q 108
- (a)
- Q 109
- (b)
- Q 110
- (a)
- Q 111
- (c)
- Q 112
- (d)
- Q 113
- (d)
- Q 114
- (c)
- Q 115
- (d)
- Q 116
- (a)
- Q 117
- (a)
- Q 118
- (c)
Language II (English)
- Q 121
- (d)
- Q 123
- (c)
- Q 124
- (b)
- Q 125
- (b)
- Q 127
- (b)
- Q 128
- (b)
- Q 129
- (a)
- Q 130
- (c)
- Q 131
- (c)
- Q 134
- (d)
- Q 135
- (a)
- Q 136
- (d)
- Q 137
- (c)
- Q 138
- (b)
- Q 139
- (d)
- Q 140
- (a)
- Q 141
- (c)
- Q 142
- (b)
- Q 143
- (b)
- Q 144
- (a)
- Q 145
- (a)
- Q 146
- (b)
- Q 147
- (a)
- Q 148
- (c)
- Q 149
- (b)
- Q 150
- (b)