CTET Paper I — 8 December 2019 (Set A)

1. The most critical period of acquisition and development of language is

• (a) pre-natal period.
• (b) early childhood.
• (c) middle childhood.
• (d) adolescence.

2. Which of the following is a stage of moral development proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg ?

• (a) Latency Stage
• (b) The social contract orientation
• (c) Concrete operational stage
• (d) Industry vs. Inferiority stage

3. During classroom discussions, a teacher often pays more attention to boys than girls. This is an example of

• (a) Gender bias.
• (b) Gender identity.
• (c) Gender relevance.
• (d) Gender constancy.

4. Which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce children’s gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity ?

• (a) Discussion about gender bias
• (b) Emphasizing gender-specific roles
• (c) Gender-segregated play groups
• (d) Gender-segregated seating arrangement

5. Which of the following theorists while viewing children as active seekers of knowledge emphasized the influence of social and cultural contents on their thinking ?

• (a) John B. Watson
• (b) Lev Vygotsky
• (c) Jean Piaget
• (d) Lawrence Kohlberg

6. While working on a jig-saw puzzle, 5 years old Najma says to herself, “Where is the blue piece ? No, not this one, darker one that would go here and make this shoe”. This kind of talk is referred to by Vygotsky as

• (a) private speech.
• (b) talk aloud.
• (c) scaffolding.
• (d) egocentric speech.

7. Giving cues to children and offering support as and when needed is an example of

• (a) reinforcement.
• (b) conditioning.
• (c) modelling.
• (d) scaffolding.

8. Which of the following behaviours characterize the ‘concrete operational stage’ as proposed by Jean Piaget ?

• (a) Hypothetico-deduction reasoning; propositional thought
• (b) Conservation; class inclusion
• (c) Deferred imitation; object permanence
• (d) Make-believe play; irreversibility of thought

9. Which of the following is a Piagetian construct in the context of cognitive development of children ?

• (a) Schemas
• (b) Observational learning
• (c) Conditioning
• (d) Reinforcement

10. Primary objective of Assessment should be

• (a) assigning rank to students.
• (b) understanding children’s clarity and confusions about related concepts.
• (c) labelling students as per their score.
• (d) marking pass or fail in the report cards.

11. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ?

• (a) Intelligence is a fixed ability determined at the time of birth only.
• (b) Intelligence can be accurately measured and determined by using standardized tests.
• (c) Intelligence is a unitary factor and a single trait.
• (d) Intelligence is multi-dimensional and a set of complex abilities.

12. Ruhi always thinks of multiple solutions to a problem many of which are original solutions. Ruhi is displaying characteristics of a/an

• (a) creative thinker.
• (b) convergent thinker.
• (c) rigid thinker.
• (d) egocentric thinker.

13. In a situation of less participation of students belonging to a deprived group in teaching – learning process, a teacher should

• (a) ask the children to withdraw from school.
• (b) accept this situation as it is.
• (c) lower her expectations from such students.
• (d) reflect on her own teaching and find ways to improve student’s involvement.

14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher _________ Individualized Education Plans.

• (a) should not prepare
• (b) should occasionally prepare
• (c) should actively prepare
• (d) should discourage the preparation of

15. The primary characteristic of children with ‘dyslexia’ includes

• (a) attention deficit disorders.
• (b) divergent thinking; fluency in reading.
• (c) inability to read fluently.
• (d) engaging in repetitive locomotor actions.

16. The concept of ‘Inclusive Education’ as advocated in the Right to Education Act, 2009 is based on

• (a) the behaviouristic principles.
• (b) a sympathetic attitude towards disabled.
• (c) a rights-based humanistic perspective.
• (d) mainstreaming of the disabled by offering them primarily vocational education.

17. In the constructivist framework, learning is primarily

• (a) based on rote-memorization.
• (b) centered around reinforcement.
• (c) acquired through conditioning.
• (d) focused on the process of meaning-making.

18. ‘Naive theories’ that children construct about various phenomenon

• (a) should be ignored by the teacher.
• (b) should be punished by the teacher.
• (c) should be ‘replaced’ by correct one through repetitive memorization.
• (d) should be challenged by presenting counter evidence and examples.

19. Child-centered pedagogy promotes

• (a) exclusive reliance on text books.
• (b) giving primacy to children’s experiences.
• (c) rote memorisation.
• (d) labelling and categorization of students base on ability.

20. Emotions and cognition are _________ each other.

• (a) completely separate from
• (b) independent of
• (c) inter-woven with
• (d) not related to

21. Which of the following statements about learning is correct from a constructivist perspective ?

• (a) Learning is the process of reproduction and recall.
• (b) Learning is the process of rote memorization.
• (c) Learning is conditioning of behaviours by repetitive association.
• (d) Learning is the process of construction of knowledge by active engagement.

22. Presenting students with clear examples and non-examples

• (a) is an effective way to encourage conceptual change.
• (b) leads to confusion in the minds of students.
• (c) causes gaps in their understanding of concepts.
• (d) focuses on procedural knowledge rather than conceptual understanding.

23. Repeatedly asking children to engage in learning activities either to avoid punishment or to gain a reward

• (a) decreases extrinsic motivation.
• (b) increases intrinsic motivation.
• (c) would encourage children to focus on mastery rather than performance goals.
• (d) decreases children’s natural interest and curiosity involved in learning.

24. Which of the following practices promote meaningful learning ? (i) Corporal punishment (ii) Co-operative learning environment (iii) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation (iv) Constant comparative evaluation

• (a) (i), (ii)
• (b) (ii), (iii)
• (c) (i), (ii), (iii)
• (d) (ii), (iii), (iv)

25. How can teachers facilitate understanding of complex concepts in children ?

• (a) By delivering a lecture
• (b) By organizing competitive events
• (c) By repetitive mechanical drill
• (d) By providing opportunities for exploration and discussion

26. A primary school teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by

• (a) offering materialistic rewards for every small tasks.
• (b) emphasizing only on procedural knowledge.
• (c) dismissing and penalizing ‘incorrect answers’.
• (d) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and then brainstorming on the same.

27. In which of the following periods does physical growth and development occur at a rapid pace ?

• (a) Infancy and early childhood
• (b) Early childhood and middle childhood
• (c) Middle childhood and adolescence
• (d) Adolescence and adulthood

28. Which of the following is NOT a principle of development ?

• (a) Development is lifelong.
• (b) Development is modifiable.
• (c) Development is influenced by both heredity and environment.
• (d) Development is universal and cultural contents do not influence it.

29. The primary cause of individual variations is

• (a) the genetic code received by the individuals from birth parents.
• (b) the inborn characteristics.
• (c) the environmental influences.
• (d) the complex interplay between the heredity and the environment.

30. Which of the following are examples of secondary socializing agency ?

• (a) Family and neighbourhood
• (b) Family and media
• (c) School and media
• (d) Media and neighbourhood

31. Three brands of pens A, B and C are available in packets of 10, 12 and 24 respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to buy equal number of pens of each brand, what is the minimum number of packets of each brand, he should buy ?

• (a) A = 10, B = 12, C = 5
• (b) A = 5, B = 12, C = 10
• (c) A = 10, B = 5, C = 12
• (d) A = 12, B = 10, C = 5

33. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

• (a) All prime numbers are odd numbers.
• (b) There are infinitely many prime numbers.
• (c) A prime number has only two factors.
• (d) There are only four single digit prime numbers.

34. A number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is

• (a) 10
• (b) 100
• (c) 604
• (d) 2520

37. One-sixth of the trees in a garden are neem trees. Half of the trees are Ashoka trees and the remaining are eucalyptus trees. If the number of neem trees is five, how many eucalyptus trees are there in the garden ?

• (a) 5
• (b) 10
• (c) 15
• (d) 20

38. A train leaves Delhi on 29 August, th 2019 at 16 : 30 hours and reaches its destination on 31 August at 08 : 45 st hours. The total travel time of the journey is

• (a) 36 hours 15 minutes
• (b) 38 hours 45 minutes
• (c) 39 hours 45 minutes
• (d) 40 hours 15 minutes

39. In which of the following, lengths have been arranged in decreasing order ?

• (a) 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 8 m
• (b) 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 8 m, 800 cm 8 mm
• (c) 8 m, 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm
• (d) 8500 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 800 cm 8 mm, 8 m

40. A 180 cm long wire is formed into a rectangle. If the width of this rectangle is 30 cm, what is its length ?

• (a) 45 cm
• (b) 60 cm
• (c) 90 cm
• (d) 120 cm

41. When asked to write 44, some students of grade II wrote it as 404. As a teacher, how will you address this ?

• (a) correct their answer in their copies
• (b) explain principle of exchange using concrete material
• (c) group them with those who have done it correctly
• (d) tell them to find out correct answer

42. The main purpose of introducing ‘mapping’ in the primary Mathematics curriculum is/are A. to promote spatial thinking B. to promote proportional reasoning C. to make subject easy and interesting D. to break the monotony of numbers

• (a) A & C
• (b) A & D
• (c) A & B
• (d) B & C

43. Which of the following topics are not part of primary school Mathematics curriculum as per NCF 2005 ?

• (a) Tessellation
• (b) Symmetry
• (c) Patterns
• (d) Ratio

44. Which of the following resources/TLM can be used by the teacher to show that two rectangles of different dimensions can have same area without using formula ? A. Scale B. Graph paper C. Thread D. Tiles

• (a) only B
• (b) B & D
• (c) only C
• (d) A & D

45. Which of the following could be contributing factor to underachievement in mathematics ?

• (a) Gender
• (b) Socio-cultural backbroud
• (c) Nature of Mathematics
• (d) Innate ability of person

46. Which of the following is the most 1 appropriate strategy to explain that 4 1 is less than ? 3

• (a) using LCM method
• (b) using paper strips
• (c) using Dienes blocks
• (d) using number chart

47. Which of the following is the most important aspect of making lesson plan while teaching Mathematics to primary school children ?

• (a) following the sequence of text book.
• (b) presenting mathematical concepts in structured manner.
• (c) providing opportunities to students to allow construction of concepts.
• (d) writing activities and questions for reference.

48. Which of the following can NOT be considered a feature of a constructivist Mathematics classroom ?

• (a) The role of language and dialogue in learning Mathematics is given due attention.
• (b) The teacher acknowledges that students may construct multiple understandings from a given interaction.
• (c) Objective type test items are used as the primary means of assessment.
• (d) Connections between Mathematics and other curricular areas are highlighted.

49. Which of the following statements is in agreement with the constructionist view of Mathematics ?

• (a) Mathematics is about learning facts.
• (b) Mathematicians are required to discover the ‘truths’.
• (c) Mathematics is entirely objective.
• (d) Visualisation is an important aspect of Mathematics.

50. Which of the following activities is best suited for the development of spatial understanding among children ?

• (a) Drawing the top view of a bottle
• (b) Locating cities on a map
• (c) Noting the time of moon rise
• (d) Representing numbers on a number line

51. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to the learning of Mathematics ?

• (a) Ability to perform and excel in Mathematics is innate.
• (b) Teachers’ beliefs about learners have powerful impact on learning outcomes.
• (c) Students’ socio-economic background impacts their performance in Mathematics.
• (d) School’s language of instruction can impact a child’s performance in Mathematics.

52. Identify the type of the following word problem : “I have 6 pencils. Manish has two more than me. How many pencils does Manish have ?”

• (a) Comparison addition
• (b) Comparison subtraction
• (c) Takeaway addition
• (d) Takeaway subtraction

53. Which of the following is NOT true of the Hindu-Arabic system of numeration ?

• (a) The position of a digit in a number dictates its value.
• (b) It is additive in nature.
• (c) It follows the base 2 system.
• (d) It is multiplicative in nature.

54. Identify a desirable practice for teaching Geometry at primary level ?

• (a) Geometry at primary level should be limited to recognition of simple basic shapes.
• (b) The teacher should begin by giving clear definitions of simple shapes and showing examples.
• (c) Children should be given ample opportunities to develop an intuitive understanding of space.
• (d) Developing extensive geometric vocabulary need not be an objective at primary level.

55. Which of the following is an indicator of mathematical reasoning ?

• (a) Ability to provide definitions of mathematical concepts.
• (b) Ability to provide a justification for a mathematical procedure.
• (c) Ability to calculate efficiently.
• (d) Ability to recall the correct formulae in different situations.

59. Which of the following is at third place when the numbers are arranged in ascending order ? 7.07, 7.70, 7.707, 7.007, 0.77

• (a) 7.70
• (b) 7.007
• (c) 7.07
• (d) 7.707

60. In a five digit number, the digit at ten’s place is 8, digit at units place is one-fourth of the digit at ten’s place, the digit at thousands place is 0, digit at hundreds place is twice that of units place and the digit at ten thousands place is thrice the digit at unit’s place. What is the number ?

• (a) 64082
• (b) 64028
• (c) 46028
• (d) 60482

61. A person boarded an express train on 29 November, 2019 at Surat th (Gujarat) for Nagarcoil (Kerala). The train departed from Surat at 19:45 hours and reached Nagarcoil at 11:45 hours on 1 December, 2019. If the st distance between Surat and Nagarcoil by train route is nearly 2120 km, the average speed of the train during this journey was

• (a) 132.5 km/h
• (b) 60 km/h
• (c) 53 km/h
• (d) 45 km/h

62. Which one of the following is a weight lifter of international fame ?

• (a) Sunita Williams
• (b) Bachhendri Pal
• (c) Suryamani
• (d) Karnam Malleshwari

63. Which one of the following is a group of roots ?

• (a) Beetroot, Potato, Ginger
• (b) Carrot, Turmeric, Ginger
• (c) Sweet Potato, Radish, Turmeric
• (d) Carrot, Beetroot, Radish

64. Desert Oak is a tree which is found in

• (a) Abu Dhabi
• (b) Australia
• (c) desert of Rajasthan
• (d) the desert of UAE

65. Consider the following statements about Nepenthese, a plant which hunts. A. This plant is found in Australia, Indonesia and Meghalaya in India. B. It has a pitcher-like shape and the mouth is covered by a leaf. C. It can trap and eat only small insects. D. It emits a pleasant sound to attract small insects which get trapped and cannot get out. The correct statements are

• (a) A and B only
• (b) A and C only
• (c) B and D only
• (d) A, B and C

66. In which one of the following states of India is Dandi seashore located where Mahatma Gandhi did his famous march before independence ?

• (a) Andhra Pradesh
• (b) Karnataka
• (c) Maharashtra
• (d) Gujarat

67. High fever with shiver which can be treated with the bark of Cinchona tree is

• (a) typhoid
• (b) malaria
• (c) chikungunya
• (d) dengue

68. A doctor is located at X and his hospital is located at Y. There is no straight lane from the doctor’s house to the hospital. So, the doctor first goes to A which is 600 m due east of X, then goes to B which is 450 m due south of A, then to C which is 120 m due west of B and finally reaches the hospital at Y which is 90 m due north of C. With respect to the hospital the correct direction of the doctors house is

• (a) north-east
• (b) north-west
• (c) south-east
• (d) south-west

69. “Cheraw” is the dance form of the people of

• (a) Jharkhand
• (b) Mizoram
• (c) Manipur
• (d) Meghalaya

70. Neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu are

• (a) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka
• (b) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra
• (c) Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Kerala
• (d) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka

71. Which one of the following should NOT be the objective of teaching EVS at primary level as per NCF-2005 ?

• (a) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child particularly in relation to the natural environment.
• (b) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities to acquire basic cognitive and psychomotor skills through observation, classification, inference, etc.
• (c) To train children to locate and comprehend relationships between the natural, social and cultural environment.
• (d) To develop precise quantitative skills among children through understanding of environmental issues.

72. EVS for classes-III to V is a subject area which integrates –

• (a) the concepts and issues of Science.
• (b) the concepts and issues of Science, Social studies and Environmental education.
• (c) the concepts and issues of Social science and Science.
• (d) the concepts and issues of Science and Environmental education.

73. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS ?

• (a) EVS is a subject taught from classes I to V.
• (b) For classes I and II, EVS is taught through language and Mathematics.
• (c) For classes II, III and IV, issues and concerns of EVS are taught through language and Mathematics.
• (d) For classes I and II, concerns and issues of EVS are taught through Science and Social science.

74. Children get lot of space to learn EVS through exploration. This indicates that

• (a) EVS is learnt through rote.
• (b) EVS is learnt through information.
• (c) EVS is child centred.
• (d) EVS is teacher centred.

75. Which of the following is a subtheme under the theme suggested in the EVS syllabus ?

• (a) Family and Friends
• (b) Food
• (c) Animals
• (d) Things we make and do

76. Which of the following is a desirable practice for an EVS teacher ?

• (a) Addressing multicultural dimensions of diverse classrooms.
• (b) Encouraging children to provide important information related to the concepts of EVS.
• (c) Linear arrangement of six themes of EVS.
• (d) Relying only in textbooks.

77. Which of the following is/are important in constructing knowledge in EVS by the children ? A. Active participation of children. B. Community members of children C. Text books of EVS D. Description and definition given in the textbook of EVS

• (a) A, B and C
• (b) A and C only
• (c) A, C and D
• (d) C only

78. Children can be effectively engaged in EVS learning through A. Narratives B. Stories C. Effective explanation of concepts by the teacher D. Effective demonstration and explanation of concepts by the teacher

• (a) A, C, D
• (b) A and B only
• (c) C and D only
• (d) A, B and C

79. Objective/s of EVS teacher who encourages his/her children to observe animals and make pictures on their own is/are to A. Develop creativity of children B. Develop observation and design skills of children C. Develop aesthetic sense of children

• (a) A only
• (b) A and C only
• (c) B only
• (d) A, B and C

80. In EVS learning of crafts and arts while working in groups, is encouraged because A. Group learning is easier and very effective strategy for teachers to tackle the problem of indiscipline of the class. B. Group learning promotes peer learning. C. Group learning improves social interactions. D. Group learning help in completing the syllabus of EVS in time.

• (a) A and D only
• (b) B and D only
• (c) B and C only
• (d) C and D only

81. Which of the following is/are the most effective resource for EVS learning ? A. Family members B. Members of the community C. Newspapers D. Classroom

• (a) D only
• (b) C and D only
• (c) A, B and C
• (d) A and B only

82. Which of the following principle of learning is followed in EVS ?

• (a) Global to local
• (b) Abstract to concrete
• (c) Unknown to known
• (d) Known to unknown

83. Which of the following is NOT a tool for Formative Assessment of learning in EVS ?

• (a) Portfolio
• (b) Rating scale
• (c) Anecdotal records
• (d) Annual achievement test

84. Which of the following should be avoided while assessing children in EVS ?

• (a) Judging the answers given by children in terms of right or wrong.
• (b) Discuss “What we have learnt” given at the end of each chapter of EVS textbook of class V
• (c) Use indicators for assessment
• (d) Qualitative assessment of children’s learning

85. A teacher of class V conducts an activity in which she asks her children to drop some sugar on the ground and asks them to wait until the ants come there. Children can be given meaningful learning from this activity if teacher _____.

• (a) encourages her/his children to observe the activity
• (b) encourages his/her children to share their experiences
• (c) encourages her/his children to observe, share their experiences followed by discussion on the activity.
• (d) encourages her/his children to answer the questions at their home related to the activity.

86. Consider the following list : Tortoise, Crocodile, Crow, Duck, Fish In this list which one of the following is different from the others ?

• (a) Fish
• (b) Crow
• (c) Crocodile
• (d) Tortoise

87. Column-I Column-II (City/State) (Most liked food) A. Hongkong I. Boiled tapioca with any cury B. Kerala II. Fish cooked in mustard oil C. Kashmir III. Sea fish cooked in coconut oil D. Goa IV. Chholay Bhature V. Cooked Snakes The correct match of term of Column-I with that of Column-II is :

• (a) A-V; B-II; C-III; D-IV
• (b) A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III
• (c) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I
• (d) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I

88. Which one of the following bird’s species moves its neck back and forth with a jerk.

• (a) Owl
• (b) Crow
• (c) Barbet
• (d) Mynah

89. Consider the following description of houses : A. In Rajasthan the villagers live in mud houses with roofs of thorny bushes. B. In Manali (Himachal Pradesh) houses are made on bamboo pillers C. In Leh two floor houses are made of stones. The ground floor is for animals and for storing necessary things. The correct statement(s) is/are

• (a) A and B
• (b) B and C
• (c) A and C
• (d) Only C

90. Consider the following statements about elephants : A. Elephants do not rest very much, they sleep 2 to 4 hours only in a day. B. An adult elephant can eat more than 200 kg of leaves and twigs in a day. C. They love to play with mud and water, the mud keeps their skin cool. D. In elephant herd the oldest female elephant decides everything. The correct statements are

• (a) A, B and C
• (b) B, C and D
• (c) C, D and A
• (d) A, B and D

106. In the multilingual classroom learners can interact _____.

• (a) in the medium of instruction followed by the school.
• (b) in their own language and can be a mix of words from more than one language.
• (c) only in the language prescribed in three-language formula.
• (d) in the language with which the teacher is familiar.

107. Diagnostic tests are administered to _____.

• (a) find out deficiencies of the students with a view to planning remedies.
• (b) assess the suitability of a candidate for a specific programme.
• (c) test the language proficiency of students for providing them jobs.
• (d) judge the students’ capabilities.

108. Structural approach gives more importance to _____.

• (a) speech and reading
• (b) reading only
• (c) speech only
• (d) reading and writing

109. Which among the following does not come under meaning based activities ?

• (a) Interacting with the text.
• (b) Using previous knowledge.
• (c) Reading the text and then narrating the same to peers.
• (d) Reading out every word aloud and translating it.

110. _____ comprehension is the skill of reading a piece of text closely or intensely for the purpose of extracting specific information from the text.

• (a) Inferential
• (b) Global
• (c) Local
• (d) Transactional

111. It is a type of writing in which the teacher provides the situation and helps the class to prepare it. The teacher continuously provides feedback, direction and expansion of ideas to the learners.

• (a) Controlled writing
• (b) Guided writing
• (c) Free writing
• (d) Product writing

112. A teacher asked the students of class V to read the text thoroughly. Then she asked them to answer the questions with reference to the context (RTC). In this process she is encouraging students for _____.

• (a) skimming
• (b) scanning
• (c) intensive reading
• (d) extensive reading

113. The term ‘Comprehensible input’ is associated with _____.

• (a) Lev Vygotsky
• (b) Stephen Krashan
• (c) Noam Chomsky
• (d) James Asher

114. Which one of the following is not a sub skill of reading ?

• (a) Connecting
• (b) Predicting
• (c) Synthesizing
• (d) Transcripting

115. Which one of the following is least important in enhancing speaking skill of children ?

• (a) Listening patiently to children’s talk.
• (b) Giving them an opportunity to express their feelings and ideas.
• (c) Asking closed ended questions.
• (d) Organizing discussions on a given topic.

116. At primary level literature is helpful in developing language of learners as :

• (a) it encourages the learners to complete the worksheets based on it.
• (b) it is an authentic material covering various genres.
• (c) it develops teachers’ interpretative, creative and critical abilities.
• (d) it is a good basis for the only expansion of vocabulary.

117. A teacher prepares a worksheet and removes every seventh word from the text. Then she asks the learners to read the text after that they were asked to complete the worksheet with missing word. The task given on the worksheet is a

• (a) speaking task
• (b) writing task
• (c) cloze test
• (d) open test

118. ‘Language is arbitrary’ means that _____

• (a) something is determined by judgement and for a specific reason.
• (b) it is based on a valid reason and not on chance.
• (c) there is a strong relation between the words of a language and their meaning.
• (d) there is no inherent relation between the words of a language and their meaning.

119. The teacher observed that Pravin could not write a paragraph on her own even after brainstorming the topic. However, she was able to write it under adult or peer guidance. This guidance is called _____.

• (a) Team teaching
• (b) Counselling
• (c) Scaffolding
• (d) Socialization

120. The purpose of textual exercise is not to

• (a) develop creativity among learners.
• (b) provide opportunity to express themselves.
• (c) memorise the answers to the questions.
• (d) give exposure to language learning.

136. A teacher wants to create a language-rich environment in her class. She should :

• (a) establish a language lab in her class.
• (b) motivate parents to buy language games and activities.
• (c) provide an opportunity where the language is seen, noticed and used by children.
• (d) ask students to use only English while communicating in the class with peers.

137. Literature for children is considered as a/an _____ reading.

• (a) additional burden on
• (b) authentic source of
• (c) hindrance material for
• (d) inspirational source of

138. Which one of the following is not a form of literature for children ?

• (a) Picture books
• (b) Thesaurus
• (c) Myths and legends
• (d) Tales of heroes of history

139. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Print Rich Environment ?

• (a) It consists of context-based relevant material for children such as pictures, rhymes, stories etc.
• (b) Once the material is pasted on walls, it should not be removed for the whole session.
• (c) Pictures / posters give children an opportunity to talk about things, persons and happenings.
• (d) Encourage children to create their own poems, posters, stories etc. and display them in the class.

140. A teacher gives a task of dialogue completion to class V students. The role of this task in language learning will be ________

• (a) teaching of structures.
• (b) the separation of spoken and written forms of language.
• (c) to facilitate conversation by giving specific language practice using formulaic expressions.
• (d) to provide frequent feedback only on grammatical errors.

141. Using ‘realia’ in the language class means bringing _____.

• (a) real life situations to communicate.
• (b) real objects as teaching aids.
• (c) realistic objectives and targets for the learners.
• (d) real level of child’s learning to the knowledge of parents.

142. The multilingual nature of the Indian class-room must be used as a resource so that ________.

• (a) every child feels secure and accepted.
• (b) every child learns at the same pace.
• (c) children can learn many languages.
• (d) the teacher develops language proficiency.

143. An English textbook for class I starts with pictures, poems and stories and ends with alphabets in the end. Which approach does this kind of arrangement reflect in language pedagogy ?

• (a) Eclectic approach
• (b) Bottom-up approach
• (c) Top down approach
• (d) Language across curriculum approach

144. While checking the notebooks the teacher observed that a child has repeatedly made some errors in writing such as reverse image as b – d, m – w. The child is showing the signs of _____.

• (a) learning preference
• (b) learning style
• (c) learning disability
• (d) learning differences

145. A teacher is telling a story with actions and gestures to class III students. After this she asked them to draw pictures on the story in groups. Why do you think she asked them to draw pictures on the story ?

• (a) She wanted to assess their colouring and drawing skills.
• (b) She had completed her lesson as per her lesson plan so, she engaged them in drawing.
• (c) She wanted to assess their comprehension of the story.
• (d) She wanted to see the participation of children while drawing.

146. Active vocabulary consists of words which are _____.

• (a) used occasionally
• (b) difficult to pronounce
• (c) used frequently
• (d) phonological and lexical

147. The major aim of teaching poetry is _____.

• (a) vocabulary development.
• (b) enjoyment and appreciation.
• (c) development of grammar.
• (d) making learners to became poets.

148. Morpheme is the

• (a) smallest unit of a word.
• (b) smallest unit of meaning that cannot be broken up.
• (c) unit of a word that can be broken up into new meaning.
• (d) smallest unit of a phrase.

149. A teacher of class II uses learner’s knowledge and language to build a bridge between his mother tongue and English language teaching. Here learner’s language is used in teaching English as a _____.

• (a) hindrance
• (b) translation
• (c) resource
• (d) pattern

150. BICS stands for

• (a) Bilingual Integrated Content and Syllabus
• (b) Bilingual Interdependent Course and Syllabus
• (c) Basic Interrelated Communication Strategies
• (d) Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills