CTET Paper II — 7 February 2026 (Set W) — Mathematics and Science

2. A major developmental task during _____ is the search for identity—personal, sexual and occupational.

• (a) middle childhood
• (b) early childhood
• (c) adolescence
• (d) middle adulthood

3. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Children learn values and norms of the society in overt as well as covert ways. Reason (R) : Socialization is the simple process of passing on customs and rituals of the society. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (c) A is true but R is false.
• (d) Both A and R are false.

4. As per Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following abilities distinguishes formal operational thinking from concrete operational thinking?

• (a) Abstract logic
• (b) Conservation
• (c) Object permanence
• (d) Symbolic play

5. A significant critique of Jean Piaget is that he failed to adequately consider the influence of _____ on development.

• (a) maturation
• (b) culture
• (c) experience
• (d) activity

6. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

• (a) Punishment and Obedience orientation—Avoidance of bad consequences
• (b) Good boy-Good girl orientation—Greatest good for greater numbers
• (c) Law and Order orientation—Upholding principles of social justice for humanity
• (d) Social Contract orientation—Consideration of perception of others

7. Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky are similar in their belief that

• (a) children are involved in the process of meaning making.
• (b) language influences and determines thought.
• (c) culture has a profound effect on the learning.
• (d) development of children takes place in stage-like progression.

8. Lev Vygotsky proposed that

• (a) children are born ‘unruly’ and society needs to teach them social behaviours.
• (b) children’s thinking is ‘quantitatively’ different from adults.
• (c) children’s thinking is ‘qualitatively’ different from adults.
• (d) children have a lot of potential which includes tasks they can do with the others’ support.

9. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : The purpose of administering intelligence tests and extended observation should be to compare children in specific domains and abilities. Reason (R) : Intelligence is an innate ability and cannot be nurtured. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (c) A is true but R is false.
• (d) Both A and R are false.

10. A teacher who consciously takes examples of scientists of all genders in her middle school classroom is trying to—

• (a) break gender stereotypes.
• (b) reinforce gender discrimination.
• (c) enable gender identity.
• (d) construct gender constancy.

11. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : All girls are hardworking and sincere while boys are intelligent and dominating. Reason (R) : Two distinctive biological brains produce all differences in physical and cognitive skills as well as personalities and temperament in girls and boys. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (c) A is true but R is false.
• (d) Both A and R are false.

12. Individual differences in learning preferences of students should be seen as—

• (a) abnormal parameter of their differing IQ levels.
• (b) cognitive abnormality among some children.
• (c) developmental deficits among some children.
• (d) normal depiction of diversity.

13. The kind of assessment in which a student’s scores are compared with the average performance of other students is called

• (a) criteria-referenced.
• (b) format-referenced.
• (c) norm-referenced.
• (d) self-referenced.

14. Which of the following statements about classroom assessment are correct? (i) Assessments should influence the students’ cognitive processes while they study. (ii) Assessments should serve as learning experiences in themselves. (iii) Assessments should create fear and stress among students to get them to learn. (iv) Assessments should be standardized and norm-referenced. Choose the correct option.

• (a) (i), (iii)
• (b) (i), (ii)
• (c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
• (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

15. Which of the following questions would promote higher-order critical and analytical thinking skills among the students?

• (a) Identify the assumptions underlying two newspaper articles depicting the same event.
• (b) Identify the nouns mentioned in a specific newspaper article.
• (c) Read the newspaper articles and make a list of new words.
• (d) Read the newspaper article and think of a suitable title.

16. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Students with poor writing abilities are often stereotyped by their teachers as ‘intellectually disabled’. Reason (R) : Teachers tend to have implicit bias and hold assumptions about students’ learning behaviours that can affect students’ growth. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (c) A is true but R is false.
• (d) Both A and R are false.

17. Which of the following is not a way to promote diversity in the classroom?

• (a) Incorporating a variety of perspectives and experiences in the curriculum
• (b) Encouraging students to express their unique identities and cultures
• (c) Adapting behaviour based on stereotyping students according to their backgrounds and cultures
• (d) Providing opportunities for students to interact with individuals from different backgrounds and cultures

18. Which of the following is the correct match of learning disability and challenge caused by it?

• (a) Dyscalculia—Impacts ability to read and language processing skills
• (b) Dysgraphia—Impacts fine motor skills and spelling
• (c) Dyslexia—Impacts ability to learn numbers and arithmetic operations
• (d) Dyspraxia—Impacts ability to see, hear and talk properly

19. Students struggling with ‘autism’ show ease at

• (a) communication with strangers.
• (b) eye contact during conversation.
• (c) familiar and predictable routines.
• (d) rapid transitions between activities.

20. Which of the following statements is not correct about gifted children?

• (a) Children can be gifted at different levels and some can have some kind of disability also.
• (b) Children can be gifted in more than one kind of intelligence.
• (c) Gifted children are born with extraordinary abilities and potential that need to be nurtured.
• (d) Gifted children have lower sense of curiosity and poor imagination skills.

21. Error analysis by students

• (a) creates further gaps in students’ understanding.
• (b) hinders metacognitive skills of students.
• (c) is a futile activity in process of learning.
• (d) supports students in retaining their learning.

22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge?

• (a) Declarative knowledge emphasizes how to do something.
• (b) Declarative knowledge is also known as analytical knowledge.
• (c) Procedural knowledge is generally process-oriented in nature.
• (d) Procedural knowledge tells the factual knowledge about something.

23. Contents which require an extension or modification of existing cognitive structures take _____ time for learning and are retained for _____ duration.

• (a) long, long
• (b) long, short
• (c) short, short
• (d) short, long

24. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Teachers should encourage children to focus on questions such as “what is my learning goal and what do I need to do to get there”. Reason (R) : When students understand how to self-assess their work performance, they can use this understanding to help themselves learn and progress. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (c) A is true but R is false.
• (d) Both A and R are false.

25. In guided discovery approach of learning

• (a) learners are left on their own without any kind of intervention by teacher.
• (b) no prior planning or previous knowledge is required.
• (c) opportunities are provided to learners to construct knowledge for themselves.
• (d) teacher acts as a dictator and learners act as listeners.

26. Which of the following strategies is not effective while developing conceptual understanding in children?

• (a) Presenting a wide range of examples in diverse contexts
• (b) Presenting non-examples to show what the concept is not
• (c) Asking students to generate their own examples
• (d) Asking students to memorize the definition as it is

27. An active middle school classroom should be founded on the theoretical principles of

• (a) behaviourism
• (b) psychodynamism
• (c) social constructivism
• (d) psychoanalysis

28. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Empathy depends on the ability to understand that others have feelings and to gauge their feelings. Reason (R) : Emotions and cognition are not related to each other. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (c) A is true but R is false.
• (d) Both A and R are false.

29. A middle school teacher can enable students become strategic self-motivated learners by—

• (a) encouraging students to develop their metacognitive knowledge and skills.
• (b) providing varied forms of reinforcement for every task completed.
• (c) dictating well-prepared answers to questions in the textbook.
• (d) stressing upon objective-type testing at the end of the term.

30. Which of the following exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

• (a) Motivation driven by external rewards
• (b) Motivation driven by personal interest or enjoyment of the task
• (c) Motivation driven by competition with others
• (d) Motivation driven by gaining the appreciation of others

31. The greatest number that divides 87 and 123 leaving respectively 7 and 3 as remainders is :

• (a) 20
• (b) 36
• (c) 40
• (d) 80

34. The digit at units place of the square of a number is 2 more than the digit at units place of that number. Which of the following cannot be the digit at units place of the square of that number?

• (a) 4
• (b) 5
• (c) 6
• (d) 9

38. One of the factors of 5 (2x - 4y ) + 6 (4x 2 + 16y 2 - 16xy ) - 6 is :

• (a) 2x - 4y - 3
• (b) 4x - 8y + 3
• (c) 3x - 6y + 1
• (d) 3x - 6y - 1 5 (2x - 4y ) + 6 (4x 2 + 16y 2 - 16xy ) - 6 (1) 2x - 4y - 3 (2) 4x - 8y + 3 (3) 3x - 6y + 1 (4) 3x - 6y - 1

40. When x is added to each of the numbers 4, 10, 12 and 24, then the numbers so obtained in this order are in proportion. What is the value of (3x + 1)?

• (a) 10
• (b) 13
• (c) 16
• (d) 19

43. Which of the following measurements (in cm) cannot form the sides of a right triangle?

• (a) 2 × 5, 6 × 5, 6
• (b) 12, 16, 20
• (c) 4 × 5, 6, 7 × 5
• (d) 8, 16, 12

44. Which of the following letters does not have rotational symmetry?

• (a) H
• (b) O
• (c) E
• (d) N

45. Diagonals PR and QS of a parallelogram PQRS intersect at point O . If OP = (x + y ) cm, OQ = 20 cm, OR = 16 cm and OS = ( y + 7 ) cm, then the value of (7x - y ) (in cm) is :

• (a) 6
• (b) 8
• (c) 9
• (d) 13

48. Three metallic solid cubes of sides 8 cm, 6 cm and 10 cm are melted to form a single solid cube. The side of the new cube so formed is :

• (a) 24 cm
• (b) 20 cm
• (c) 18 cm
• (d) 12 cm

49. The mean of the median and mode of the observations 30, 61, 55, 56, 60, 20, 26, 45, 28 and 56 is

• (a) 52
• (b) 53
• (c) 55
• (d) 56

51. A teacher gives an image drawn on a square grid to children and asks them to draw its enlarged and reduced size images. Which of the following would not be an objective of doing this exercise in a mathematics classroom?

• (a) To apply the concept of ratio and proportion in different situations
• (b) To provide practice for application of fractions
• (c) To provide scope for integrating arithmetic and geometry
• (d) To introduce the concept of congruency and similarity

52. Closed-ended questions in mathematics do not promote : A. Divergent thinking B. Convergent thinking C. Creativity D. Higher-order thinking skills Choose the correct option.

• (a) A and B
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, C and D

53. Which of the following should not be a part of assessment of students in mathematics?

• (a) Apply mathematical concepts learnt to solve problems related to daily life situations
• (b) Reason out mathematical facts
• (c) Recalling the definitions of mathematical terms
• (d) Use abstractions to perceive mathematical relationships

54. _____ was the first Indian mathematician who explained that the square root of a negative number does not exist.

• (a) Mahavira
• (b) Baudhayana
• (c) Aryabhatta
• (d) Ramanujan

55. When asked to arrange the decimal numbers 1× 5, 0 × 23, 1× 6, 0 × 034, 1× 13 in ascending order, one of the students arranged them as 0 × 23, 0 × 034, 1× 5, 1× 6, 1× 13. Which among the following is most appropriate for the response of the student?

• (a) The student has arranged the decimal numbers in the correct order
• (b) The student has made a careless mistake by arranging the decimal numbers in descending order
• (c) Teacher should ask the student to recall the rules of ordering decimal numbers and then arrange them
• (d) The student has developed a misconception of considering that decimal number as bigger number which has more digits in decimal part

56. A teacher asked the children to cut out six squares of ‘one’ unit each and then asked, “How many different shapes can you make using these squares? Which shape formed would have the maximum perimeter?” The least appropriate objective of this activity is

• (a) to engage children in group work
• (b) to provide opportunities for developing creativity and analytical skills
• (c) to assess children’s learning about area and perimeter
• (d) to apply the formulae learnt in a new context

57. A child solved an equation x + 7 = 15 as x + 7 - 7 = 15 x = 15 The best remedial strategy for this child is

• (a) give a lot of problems on solving equations to the child
• (b) explain problems in simple language to the child
• (c) explain the concept of equality using alternate methods
• (d) ask the child to solve the same equation on the blackboard

58. According to the National Curriculum Framework, 2005, what are the important skills to be developed among learners while teaching arithmetic and algebra? A. Looking for patterns in the relationships B. Memorizing algebraic identities C. Seeing relationship between numbers D. Rigorous practice of writing algebraic notation Choose the correct option.

• (a) A, B and D
• (b) A and C
• (c) B and C
• (d) B and D

59. After teaching ‘shapes’ in Class VIII, a teacher planned a trip to historical places. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for this?

• (a) Field trips are the recommendations of CBSE
• (b) Teacher has completed most of the syllabus, so she planned the field trip just to have fun
• (c) Shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage connection across the disciplines
• (d) It would be a break from the routine teaching of mathematics class and an opportunity to improve students’ communication skill

60. Uma, a mathematics teacher, asked a student, “How many edges are there in a cylinder?” The student answered, “Two”. Uma should

• (a) give punishment to the student for wrong answer
• (b) praise the student for correct answer
• (c) draw picture of the cylinder on the blackboard and show the edges
• (d) give cylinder in the hands of that student and ask the question again

61. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer : At the onset of puberty, the size of ovaries in females A and produce B . In males, C is produced by testes. The production of these hormones is controlled by D .

• (a) A—reduces; B—estrogen; C—sex hormone; D—adrenal gland
• (b) A—enlarges; B—thyroxine; C—testosterone; D—thyroid gland
• (c) A—reduces; B—estrogen; C—testosterone; D—pituitary gland
• (d) A—enlarges; B—estrogen; C—testosterone; D—pituitary gland

62. A circuit comprising three identical bulbs and a switch is connected in different arrangements as given below. In which arrangement will the bulbs glow the brightest?

• (a) Arrangement A—All bulbs in series
• (b) Arrangement B—All bulbs in parallel
• (c) Arrangement C—Two bulbs in parallel connected in series with the third bulb
• (d) Arrangement D—Two bulbs in series connected in parallel with the third bulb

63. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Anodizing is a method to prevent metal from corrosion. Reason (R) : Anodizing is a process of coating iron with a layer of zinc. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
• (c) A is true but R is false
• (d) Both A and R are false

64. Why do silver articles turn black when kept in the open for a few days?

• (a) Due to reaction with oxygen in air
• (b) Due to reaction with hydrogen sulphide present in air
• (c) Due to reaction with nitrogen oxides present in air
• (d) Due to reaction with carbon monoxide present in air

66. Read the following statements : Step 1 : A few spoons of sugar are dissolved in water to prepare a concentrated sugar syrup. Step 2 : The sugar syrup is heated on low flame till it caramelizes. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Step 1 is a physical change and Step 2 is a chemical change
• (b) Step 1 is a chemical change and Step 2 is a physical change
• (c) Both Step 1 and Step 2 are physical changes
• (d) Both Step 1 and Step 2 are chemical changes

67. The ion of an element has two positive charges. The mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?

• (a) 13
• (b) 10
• (c) 11
• (d) 15

68. A ray of light travels from air into three media A, B and C with different optical densities. Refer to the table given below and identify X, Y , Z and W : Change in speed Change in frequency Change in wavelength of light of light of light Air to medium A X Y Decreases Air to medium B Increases No change Z Air to medium C Remains same W No change Choose the correct option.

• (a) X—Increases; Y—Decreases; Z—Decreases; W—Increases
• (b) X—Increases; Y—Increases; Z—Increases; W—Increases
• (c) X—Decreases; Y—Remains unchanged; Z—Increases; W—Remains unchanged
• (d) X—Decreases; Y—Decreases; Z—Increases; W—Remains unchanged

69. Read the following statements : Situation A : Growth and branching of roots in the A-horizon and B-horizon is advantageous for absorption of water and minerals. Situation B : C-horizon is rich in humus which makes soil soft and porous. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Only Situation A is true
• (b) Only Situation B is true
• (c) Both Situations A and B are true
• (d) Both Situations A and B are false

70. You are provided with China rose indicator. In the first test tube, you add two drops of solution A and observe no change in colour of the solution. In the second test tube, you add two drops of solution B and get green colour. In the third test tube, you add two drops of solution C and get magenta (dark pink) colour. Identify the nature of solutions A, B and C.

• (a) A—Basic; B—Neutral; C—Acidic
• (b) A—Acidic; B—Basic; C—Neutral
• (c) A—Neutral; B—Basic; C—Acidic
• (d) A—Neutral; B—Acidic; C—Basic

71. Read the following statements : Statement 1 : An object can have non-zero mechanical energy but zero momentum. Statement 2 : An object can do zero work even if the force acting on the object is non-zero. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
• (b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
• (c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
• (d) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

72. Two identical metal containers are taken. Container A is painted black and the container B is painted white on the outside surface. Step 1 : Both the containers are kept in direct sunlight. Step 2 : After few hours, both the containers are kept in a shady area. Which of the following will be observed?

• (a) Container A will gain heat faster than container B whereas container B will lose heat faster than container A
• (b) Container B will gain heat faster than container A whereas container A will lose heat faster than container B
• (c) Container A will gain as well as lose heat faster than container B
• (d) Container B will gain as well as lose heat faster than container A

73. Why is it difficult to cut with a blunt knife as compared to a sharp one?

• (a) Pressure increases
• (b) Force decreases
• (c) Area of contact increases
• (d) Area of contact decreases

74. Which of the following can be used to increase the strength of an electromagnet?

• (a) Increasing the flow of current
• (b) Decreasing the number of turns of coil
• (c) Using a plastic core
• (d) Using an aluminium core

75. Which of the following is a set of organs that do not contribute to the digestive process?

• (a) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, rectum
• (b) Oesophagus, large intestine, rectum
• (c) Small intestine, large intestine, rectum
• (d) Large intestine, small intestine, oesophagus

76. Read the following statements : A : Earthworm breathes through its skin and does not have lungs. B : Tadpole breathes through gills and does not have lungs. C : Snake breathes through its skin and does not have lungs. Choose the correct option.

• (a) A and B are true
• (b) B and C are true
• (c) A and C are true
• (d) Only A is true

77. Read the following, and identify X, Y , Z and W respectively : X : The part which produces pollen grains Y : The part where the female gamete is formed Z : The female reproductive part where pollen grains germinate W : The part of the flower which attracts insects Choose the correct option.

• (a) Pistil, stigma, ovary, sepal
• (b) Anther, pistil, ovary, sepal
• (c) Anther, ovary, stigma, petals
• (d) Stamen, ovary, ovule, petals

78. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Sewage treatment is essential to prevent diseases and deaths. Reason (R) : Sewage is a solid waste which causes water pollution and soil pollution. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
• (c) A is true but R is false
• (d) A is false but R is true

79. Read the following statements : A : Spiracles and stomata are pores through which insects and leaves exchange gases respectively. B : Spiracles in an insect are more in number as compared to stomata in a leaf. C : Both stomata and spiracles are present on the lower surface of leaves and insect’s body respectively. Choose the correct option.

• (a) A and B are true
• (b) B and C are true
• (c) A and C are true
• (d) Only A is true

80. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer : A pushes the blood into pulmonary artery. B take deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. C return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. From the left atrium, blood flows to the D . E receives blood from different parts of the body.

• (a) A—Left ventricle; B—Pulmonary veins; C—Pulmonary arteries; D—right auricle; E—Right ventricle
• (b) A—Left ventricle; B—Pulmonary arteries; C—Pulmonary veins; D—right auricle; E—Right ventricle
• (c) A—Right ventricle; B—Pulmonary arteries; C—Pulmonary veins; D—left ventricle; E—Right auricle
• (d) A—Right ventricle; B—Pulmonary veins; C—Pulmonary arteries; D—left ventricle; E—Right auricle

81. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Hypotheses become theories which in turn become laws. Reason (R) : Scientific laws such as law of gravitation are absolute. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
• (c) A is true but R is false
• (d) Both A and R are false

83. Which of the following cannot be regarded as a ‘testable question’?

• (a) What is the effect of cigarette smoke on lungs?
• (b) How does flu effect human immune system?
• (c) When will fossil fuels run out?
• (d) What does an earthworm eat?

84. Read the excerpt given below : A teacher arranged a fun trip to Qutub Minar for her learners. The learners saw the iron pillar in the Qutub complex. The teacher asked the learners to note down the details displayed about the pillar that is 1600 years old and rust-resistant. She also asked them to write those iron items in their house, which are being used regularly and are rusted and think of causes of rusting and ways to prevent rusting. Which of the following process skills are being developed through the above-mentioned activity?

• (a) Measurement, classification, inference
• (b) Classification, observation, measurement
• (c) Inference, classification, observation
• (d) Classification, observation, hypothesis

85. Which of the following does not satisfy ‘process validity’ of science curriculum as recommended by the National Curriculum Framework, 2005?

• (a) Students investigating the acidity and basicity of different household items
• (b) Students discussing the possible outcomes of connecting a piece of rubber, hairpin and lead to two open ends of an electric circuit
• (c) Students involved in developing hypothesis for germination of seeds kept in a dry cotton cloth and moist cotton
• (d) Students involved in making a list of elements given in the periodic table

86. The science textbooks often include interesting anecdotes from the past. One such story is that of accidental discovery of silk in China and the role of travellers and traders in introducing silk to the rest of the world through the ‘Silk Route’. What objectives of science teaching-learning are being fulfilled by including the above in the textbook? A. To develop an understanding of nature of science B. To develop a historical perspective C. To develop an appreciation of how science is socially and culturally embedded D. To reduce the burden of science content by including fun stories Choose the correct option.

• (a) A, C and D
• (b) B, C and D
• (c) A, B and C
• (d) A, B and D

87. Which of the following tasks would not contribute to developing scientific temper among students?

• (a) Providing hands-on experiences to students
• (b) Emphasizing the historical aspects of the development of scientific concepts
• (c) Reading out the tenets of nature of science
• (d) Encouraging the students to ask questions

88. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to introduce physical properties of metals and non-metals to Grade VII learners as per the inquiry-based approach?

• (a) List the differences between the physical properties of metals and non-metals on the blackboard
• (b) Initiate a discussion on students’ everyday experiences of using metallic and non-metallic substances
• (c) Define the terms ‘sonorous’, ‘boiling point’ and ‘melting point’
• (d) Give a set of materials to students and ask them to deduce the properties of metals and non-metals

90. Before beginning to formally teach a chapter on ‘force’ in Class VI, a teacher holds a discussion in which she asks children to imagine what would they do if they wish to keep a ball rolling on the ground for very long distances. How can she most suitably use the children’s responses? A. To evaluate students B. To assess students’ preconceptions C. To determine the pedagogical strategy to be adopted to teach the concept D. To enable students to define force Choose the correct option.

• (a) A and B
• (b) B and C
• (c) C and D
• (d) A and C

91. What is the prerequisite for high effect and good quality work?

• (a) Good quality office
• (b) Health club
• (c) Exercising and stretching
• (d) Sound mind in a sound body

92. Japanese companies ensure loyalty and motivation by making their workers

• (a) start off the day with exercising
• (b) drink healthy drinks
• (c) sing the company’s song
• (d) join health clubs

93. Why do companies have health clubs?

• (a) They attract more workforce
• (b) They attract profit to the company
• (c) They help in better efficiency and high productivity of the workers
• (d) Health insurance companies can tie up with these health clubs CEF–26–II (W)/P2 61 [ P.T.O.

94. ‘The movement towards health clubs is yet to gain momentum in India’ signifies that

• (a) health clubs are getting popular in Indian companies
• (b) insurance companies are getting good premium due to health clubs
• (c) health clubs in Indian companies have not yet become popular
• (d) due to health clubs, many consultancies have opened up

95. What is directly affected by physical health?

• (a) Mind
• (b) Business
• (c) Efficiency
• (d) Insurance premium

96. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘nominal’?

• (a) Above-mentioned
• (b) Cursory
• (c) Simple
• (d) Substantial

97. Which one of the following words is nearest in meaning to the word ‘prerequisite’ ?

• (a) Unnecessary
• (b) Required
• (c) Optional
• (d) Secondary

100. The speaker says that the cage-bird flutters its sorrowful wings. The wings are being described as ‘sorrowful’ because

• (a) the wings are broken
• (b) the bird is sad as it is caged
• (c) the bird can’t sing
• (d) the bird is hungry

101. The speaker’s bird can do a number of things. It is because

• (a) the bird is talented
• (b) the bird is caged
• (c) the bird is free
• (d) the bird is sorrowful

102. The caged bird is described as ‘a crippled thing’ because

• (a) its one leg is broken
• (b) it is not free to fly and soar
• (c) it is poor
• (d) it is wild

103. Which poetic device is used in the expression ‘sorrowful wings’ ?

• (a) Metaphor
• (b) Simile
• (c) Transferred epithet
• (d) Personification

104. What is the theme of the poem?

• (a) The caged bird lives a fruitful life
• (b) The birds should be kept in a cage
• (c) The birds should be given good food
• (d) Birds living in the open enjoy their lives

105. “But my bird sings!” denotes that

• (a) my bird sings sweetly
• (b) my bird is free
• (c) my bird doesn’t feel free
• (d) my bird has regained her voice CEF–26–II (W)/P2 63 [ P.T.O.

106. _____ is concerned with the aspects of meaning in language.

• (a) Phonetics
• (b) Semantics
• (c) Syntax
• (d) Morphology

107. Which of the following is not the principle of language learning?

• (a) Learning a language involves mastery of both skill and knowledge
• (b) Learners may vary in their preferred approaches to learning
• (c) Language is a tool for communication
• (d) Language is learnt through memorization of structures/rules of grammar

108. A teacher of Grade 6 writes a word in the centre of the blackboard, and asks the learners to brainstorm all the words they can think of which are connected to the central word. The major objective of this activity is

• (a) enhancing writing skills
• (b) improving vocabulary of learners
• (c) understanding grammar
• (d) enhancing reading skills

109. Read the following statements : Assertion (A) : Delaying the learning of languages in the early years makes it more difficult for children to acquire new languages. Reason (R) : Early years of the child are sensitive periods for language acquisition. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of A
• (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
• (c) A is not true but R is true
• (d) A is true but R is not true

110. One of the key principles of National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage (2022) with respect to multilingualism is

• (a) multilingual nature of a classroom acts as a barrier in effective curriculum transaction
• (b) children are not able to pick up multiple oral languages in the early years
• (c) multilingualism has both cognitive and societal/cultural benefits
• (d) children must be helped to unlearn their home language and focus of the school must shift on learning the language of the school

111. In some of the speech communities, two different varieties of language coexist, each with a distinct range of social function. This situation is described as

• (a) code mixing
• (b) register
• (c) diglossia
• (d) dialect

112. Children work in pairs. A text is divided in half. One child reads their text for the partner which the other child writes. Two of them work out the whole text. This activity is called

• (a) running dictation
• (b) word web
• (c) partial dictation
• (d) storytelling

113. Which of the following statements is not true of study about the literary texts in language classroom?

• (a) Literary texts should be used to teach grammar.
• (b) Literary texts are cultural inputs for language learning.
• (c) Literary texts develop critical thinking and reflection.
• (d) Literary texts are for appreciation and enjoyment.

114. Naveen of Class VI struggles with reading the text. The teacher gives him simpler text to read. She conducts shared reading sessions for him. The support provided by the teacher is called

• (a) reading readiness
• (b) scaffolding
• (c) brainstorming
• (d) ice breaking

115. Which approach to language teaching-learning believes ‘language is a habit’?

• (a) Audiolingualism
• (b) Communicative language teaching
• (c) Natural approach
• (d) Cooperative language learning

116. A child reads an unseen passage for which he is expected to answer the questions that follow. This type of reading is referred to as

• (a) scanning
• (b) exclusive reading
• (c) skimming
• (d) extensive reading

117. Teacher shows five pictures to the students and asks them to write story based on these pictures. This is an example of

• (a) show and tell
• (b) jigsaw dictation
• (c) shared reading
• (d) creative writing

118. Which of the following is the characteristic of performance-based assessment in language?

• (a) Multiple-choice questions
• (b) Non-interactive performance
• (c) Decontextualized test items
• (d) Contextualized communicative tasks

119. Read the following statements : A : Reading is just to understand letter-sound relationships and pronounce the words correctly. B : Reading is decoding symbols to arrive at meaning. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and B are true
• (b) A is true but B is false
• (c) B is true but A is false
• (d) Both A and B are false

120. A teacher has to assess listening skill of her students. Which of the following activities can she select as a listening assessment?

• (a) Rating the children on their oral presentation
• (b) Teacher tells a story and after that asks comprehension-based questions
• (c) Teacher asks the children to read a story and after that asks comprehension-based questions
• (d) Teacher gives vocabulary-based tasks CEF–26–II (W)/P2 65 [ P.T.O.

121. Why did the Emperor call the doctor one morning?

• (a) He wanted to eat some medicinal leaves
• (b) He was feeling tired and sleepy
• (c) He wanted the doctor to give him some hot water
• (d) He wanted to discuss about his health with the doctor

122. The Emperor was angry because

• (a) the tea leaves were covered with mud
• (b) he couldn’t chew the tea leaves
• (c) the tea leaves weren’t tasty
• (d) the doctor gave him something that was inedible

123. Read the following statements and write which of the options given below is correct : A. As he was leaving the Emperor’s room, the doctor dropped some tea leaves into the Emperor’s bathwater on purpose. B. The Emperor tasted the hot tea water and soon he started feeling sleepy.

• (a) Only A is correct
• (b) Only B is correct
• (c) Both A and B are correct
• (d) Both A and B are incorrect

124. The doctor gave the Emperor some _____ to help him stay _____.

• (a) neem leaves, awake
• (b) giloy leaves, fit
• (c) tea leaves, awake
• (d) tea leaves, sleepy

125. Which one of the following words is nearest in meaning to the word ‘youthful’ ?

• (a) Elderly
• (b) Adult
• (c) Experienced
• (d) Young

126. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘flavourful’ ?

• (a) Yummy
• (b) Nice
• (c) Bland
• (d) Appetizing

128. Which of the following statements is not true?

• (a) When the servant brought the cup of hot water, the Emperor put some tea leaves into it.
• (b) The Emperor tasted the water.
• (c) There was a smile on his face.
• (d) After drinking it, he started feeling weak and lifeless.

129. The flamingoes are not ordinary visitors to Kachchh as

• (a) they come from Australia
• (b) they are very beautiful birds
• (c) they have medicinal value
• (d) they have been the honoured guests of King Lakho

130. Flamingo City is known

• (a) as a hunting ground of flamingoes
• (b) as one of the biggest breeding grounds of the Greater Flamingoes
• (c) for its beauty
• (d) as the biggest island in the world

131. What has caused increased salinity in the Rann of Kachchh?

• (a) Arrival of flamingoes
• (b) Arrival of a large number of tourists
• (c) Construction of dams on rivers that flow into the region
• (d) A large number of hunting expeditions

132. Which one of the following words, as used in the passage, is similar in meaning to the phrase ‘unable to be reached’?

• (a) Visitors
• (b) Inaccessible
• (c) Migratory
• (d) Proliferation

133. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘destruction’?

• (a) Honoured
• (b) Breeding
• (c) Starvation
• (d) Construction

135. Which part of the following sentence contains an error? The right mix of / sweet and brackish / water in the Rann are crucial A B C / for the proliferation of algae. D

• (a) B
• (b) D
• (c) C
• (d) A

136. The space between what a learner can do without assistance and what they can do in collaboration with adults or more capable peers is termed as

• (a) level of maturity
• (b) zone of proximal development
• (c) zone of achievement
• (d) distance learning

137. An impairment of language function due to localized cerebral damage which leads to difficulty in understanding and/or producing linguistic forms is called

• (a) aphasia
• (b) dyslexia
• (c) dyscalculia
• (d) dysarthria

138. The process by which the language is passed from one generation to another is called

• (a) cultural transmission
• (b) productivity
• (c) arbitrariness
• (d) displacement

139. Between 12–18 months, children begin to produce a variety of recognizable single-unit utterances. This period, in which single terms are uttered for everyday objects, is called

• (a) cooing
• (b) telegraphic speech
• (c) holophrastic stage
• (d) babbling

140. Read the statements given below on reading and writing skills : A : The understanding of and ability to read also affects the ability to write. B : Reading and writing are separate processes and develop independent of each other. Choose the correct option.

• (a) Both A and B are correct
• (b) A is correct but B is incorrect
• (c) Both A and B are incorrect
• (d) A is incorrect but B is correct

141. All languages have certain common properties. These are called

• (a) diglossia
• (b) language universals
• (c) register
• (d) dialect

142. Acceptance of linguistic diversity in a class will

• (a) hinder in attaining language fluency
• (b) destroy the confidence of children leading to decreased imagination and creativity
• (c) have no impact on the language learning
• (d) boost up the confidence of children leading to increased imagination and creativity

143. Which of the following is not the characteristic of print awareness as part of emergent literacy?

• (a) Handling a book
• (b) Recognizing difference between letters and words
• (c) Reading is done from left to right and top to bottom
• (d) Starting to read full sentences CEF–26–II (W)/P2 73 [ P.T.O.

144. Given below are the learning outcomes for reading skill at foundational stage : A. Reads short passages accurately and fluently with appropriate intonation, pauses and voice modulation B. Reads a few sentences of familiar words with accuracy C. Reads short passages accurately with appropriate intonation and pauses Arrange them in order of progression.

• (a) A, B, C
• (b) B, C, A
• (c) A, C, B
• (d) C, A, B

145. Which of the following is not the part of extensive listening?

• (a) Listening for the gist
• (b) Listening for a main idea
• (c) Making inferences
• (d) Listening for certain facts and information

146. Which of the following tasks cannot be used for assessment of reading skill?

• (a) Read aloud
• (b) Multiple-choice questions based on the text read
• (c) Picture-cued word identification
• (d) Storytelling session by the teacher

147. Which of the following statements correctly defines running dictation?

• (a) Students hear or read different parts of the text, then exchange information with others to complete the task.
• (b) Children work in pairs. A text is divided in half. One child reads their text for the partner which the other child writes. Two of them work out the whole text.
• (c) Children work in pairs. The runner runs to see the text and dictate to the partner. The partner writes the text.
• (d) Teacher dictates the word/text to the class and students note it.

148. “A child is born with the innate capacity to acquire language.” This idea of language acquisition is supported by

• (a) nativist
• (b) cognitivist
• (c) social interactionist
• (d) behaviourist

149. In process writing approach, the element of the writing process during which writers formally share their work with the wider audience refers to

• (a) drafting
• (b) publishing
• (c) editing
• (d) revising

150. For dealing with difficult words in the text, a language teacher first converts the words into mother tongue and then asks the students to memorize them. She is using

• (a) grammar-translation method
• (b) direct method
• (c) structural approach
• (d) communicative approach