CTET Paper II — 20 August 2023 (Set H) — Social Studies

1. According to Piaget, the four qualitatively different stages :

• (a) are dependent upon the genetic codes of the children.
• (b) represent universal patterns of development of children.
• (c) illustrate that children’s minds are miniature adult minds.
• (d) vary vastly across the various cultures in the world.

2. Lev Vygotsky believed that development :

• (a) results directly from maturation.
• (b) results directly from social interaction.
• (c) is an unfolding of genetic programming.
• (d) is discontinuous in nature.

3. Which of the following is a limitation of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development ?

• (a) It does not account for the role of biological factors in cognitive development.
• (b) It does not account for the influence of culture and social factors on cognitive development.
• (c) It does not account for individual differences in cognitive development.
• (d) It overemphasizes the role of language in cognitive development.

4. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Every year Lata, a Class VII teacher invites a female maths professor and a male nurse to her class to discuss careers in these fields. Reason (R) : Gender differences are innate and not acquired through society.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

5. Which of the following questions promotes critical and creative thinking in children ?

• (a) How many states and how many capitals are there in your country ?
• (b) What is the name of your country and its geographical location on the map ?
• (c) Where does water come from in your city ?
• (d) Which can be the best way to save water and why ?

6. What does inclusive education entail ?

• (a) Provisioning of only vocational education to learners with special needs
• (b) Flexibility in the curriculum as a result of recognition of individual differences
• (c) Segregation and categorisation of students on the basis of their abilities
• (d) Standard curriculum for all learners

7. What is the role of evidence in critical thinking ?

• (a) Evidence is irrelevant to critical thinking.
• (b) Evidence should be ignored in favour of personal opinion.
• (c) Evidence should be accepted without analysis.
• (d) Evidence should be evaluated in a logical and systematic way.

8. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky differ in their perspective on the influence of language on cognitive development in children. Reason (R) : In discovery learning, teacher provides opportunities and students derive information for themselves.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

9. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Considerable variations exist in developmental rates among children. Reason (R) : Developmental differences are an inevitable result of complex interaction of genetic and experiential variations.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

10. Sibling relationships :

• (a) play an important role only during early childhood.
• (b) do not have much role in socialization.
• (c) are similar to relationships with parents and peers and play an important role in socialization throughout childhood.
• (d) are different than relationships with parents and peers and play an important role in socialization throughout childhood.

11. Which principle of development is illustrated in the following statement ? “Children who are deprived of a conducive environment for learning language in their early years have some difficulty in picking language later in life.”

• (a) Development is disorderly and unpredictable.
• (b) There is a sensitive period of language development.
• (c) Language and cognition are complexly interrelated.
• (d) Development of language is totally dependent on genetics.

12. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Teachers should ask students to identify their own examples and non-examples of the concept for strengthening the concept. Reason (R) : Thinking of examples leads to strengthening of the concept while non-examples tend to confuse the students.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

13. General principles of learning suggest that students learn better if a teacher :

• (a) first introduces the concept overall and then moves on to the intricacies of it.
• (b) first discusses the concepts in terms of logic and reason and then grants opportunity to verify the ideas.
• (c) first discusses what is not known to the student and then comes to what the student already knows.
• (d) first introduces the concept in its symbolic form and then moves to its physical form.

14. A teacher wants to help her students develop metacognitive skills. Which of the following strategies would be most effective ?

• (a) Assigning texts to students to memorize and encouraging them to repeat information from the textbook
• (b) Providing students with detailed and prescriptive instructions for all learning tasks
• (c) Encouraging students to reflect on their own learning and evaluate their progress
• (d) Providing frequent grades and feedback to motivate students

15. In the context of inclusion, curriculum learning expectations are the same in ______ , while in ________, they are different.

• (a) acceleration; enrichment
• (b) accommodation; modification
• (c) modification; accommodation
• (d) enrichment; acceleration

16. Which of the following set correctly mentions the characteristics on which students who are gifted typically differ from other students in the class ? A. Advanced depth of understanding B. Fast pace of learning C. Higher dependence on others for understanding D. Rapid physical development Choose the correct option :

• (a) B, C and D
• (b) A and B
• (c) B and C
• (d) A, B and C

17. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of hearing impairment ?

• (a) Hearing impairment of a child can be reliably tested by making loud noises near the child.
• (b) Hearing impairment is always due to a physical problem with the ear.
• (c) All children with hearing impairment need to use ‘sign language’ to communicate.
• (d) Hearing impairment can affect a child’s ability to communicate effectively.

18. According to constructivist theorists, which of the following statements would not be correct ?

• (a) Learners need to be extrinsically motivated to ensure effective learning.
• (b) Knowledge is pluralistic and multiple.
• (c) Learners construct knowledge in their social and cultural context.
• (d) Knowledge is subjective.

19. How can a teacher help Aman who is struggling with complex problems develop problem-solving skills ?

• (a) Discourage him from experimenting and taking risks
• (b) Provide him with the answers
• (c) Tell him to give up on the problem
• (d) Encourage him to brainstorm and generate ideas

20. The underlying principle of ‘understanding-based teaching’ is the belief that :

• (a) learners can construct knowledge when provided with a facilitative environment to do so.
• (b) learners know little and teaching involves transmission of facts to students.
• (c) learners are passive recipients and the teacher has the ‘right’ knowledge.
• (d) learners’ abilities and needs are diverse which cannot be catered to without focusing on standard instructions.

21. A conducive classroom environment for learning in middle classes centres around _________.

• (a) competitive ethos
• (b) conditioning and reinforcement
• (c) co-operative learning
• (d) fear of punishment and embarrassment

22. Students struggling with ‘dyslexia’ can be taught to read :

• (a) through use of strict punishment to ensure corrective reading.
• (b) through systemic phonological training.
• (c) by providing higher grade level reading texts.
• (d) by encouraging them to study in multiple distractions.

23. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Teachers should work hard to break down students’ stereotypes of particular ethnic groups. Reason (R) : A key educational objective is to enable students to engage in critical self-reflection.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are false.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

24. What is the difference between mastery goals and performance goals ?

• (a) Mastery goals are focused on gaining approval from others, while performance goals are focused on avoiding failure.
• (b) Mastery goals are focused on achieving a certain level of performance for competing with others, while performance goals are focused on improving one’s own skills and understanding of a task.
• (c) Mastery goals are focused on improving one’s own skills and understanding of a task, while performance goals are focused on achieving a high grade or receiving external rewards.
• (d) Mastery goals are focused on avoiding failure, while performance goals are focused on gaining approval and recognition from others.

25. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation ?

• (a) Studying to avoid being scolded
• (b) Participating in a competition for the prize money
• (c) Playing a musical instrument for personal enjoyment
• (d) Completing the project to impress the teacher

26. In a progressive classroom, the students : A. do not ask many questions. B. ask questions to the teacher. C. ask questions to each other. D. ask themselves questions. Choose the correct option :

• (a) B, C and D
• (b) A
• (c) B and C
• (d) B and D

27. Expectations associated with being male or female are referred to as __________ and these are learned ___________ .

• (a) gender stereotypes; only during middle childhood
• (b) gender bias; mainly during early childhood
• (c) gender constancy; initially during adolescence
• (d) gender roles; throughout childhood and into adulthood

28. Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory has been critiqued by Carol Gilligan for :

• (a) presenting a stage-theory of moral development.
• (b) collecting data by means of real-life situations.
• (c) not applying quantitative methods of analysis.
• (d) ignoring gender differences in moral reasoning.

29. Which of the following views about intelligence supports the respectful consideration of diversity among learners ?

• (a) IQ tests are the only measure of intelligence.
• (b) Intelligence is multidimensional and can change over time.
• (c) Intelligence is not influenced by genetic factors.
• (d) Intelligence is not influenced by environmental factors.

30. Who among the following critiqued the concept of ‘general’ intelligence and proposed an alternative theory of intelligence ?

• (a) Lev Vygotsky
• (b) Charles Spearman
• (c) Howard Gardner
• (d) Jean Piaget

31. Which of the following concepts (A to D) should a child have prior knowledge about to understand the concept of the Torrid Zone ? A. Longitudes B. Globe C. Insolation D. Latitudes Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, C and D

32. Which of the following are the prevailing misconceptions about Social Science ? A. It is a non-utilitarian subject. B. Natural Sciences are superior to the Social Sciences. C. It rewards memorisation of superfluous ‘facts’. D. The only job option open to students specialising in the Social Sciences is in academics. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, C and D
• (c) B and C
• (d) A, B and C

33. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : The change in nomenclature, from Civics to Political Science was to bring back the focus towards issues of contemporary India. Reason (R) : ‘Civics’ appeared in the Indian school curriculum during Colonial period against the background of increasing disloyalty among Indians towards the British Raj.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

34. Consider the following assessment question : ‘What are the ways in which people can participate in a democracy ?’ Following are some answers that you get from students. Which answer reflects the student’s understanding of the question and his/her ability to give a comprehensive ‘to-the-point’ answer ?

• (a) ‘By voting in elections.’
• (b) ‘In a democracy, people participate by voting in elections. All governments are elected for fixed periods. In India this period is five years.’
• (c) ‘Voting, dharna, rallies, social movements.’
• (d) ‘Some key elements that influence the working of a democratic government are — people’s participation, resolution of conflict and commitment to equality and justice.’

35. Consider the following assessment question : ‘What is the difference between weekly markets and shopping malls ?’ Below are some answers written by students. In which answer does the student fail to display ability of comparing/contrasting ?

• (a) ‘Weekly markets run in both rural and urban areas whereas a shopping mall is usually seen in urban areas.’
• (b) ‘Weekly markets are markets which are held on a specific day of the week whereas shopping malls are multi-storeyed buildings with shops on different floors.’
• (c) ‘Weekly markets do not have permanent shops whereas the shops in shopping malls are built to last.’
• (d) ‘The products sold in weekly markets could be bought at cheap rates whereas only a few people can afford products sold in shopping malls.’

36. Which of the following assessment questions is the most appropriate to test students’ understanding and appreciation of Indian federalism ?

• (a) What do you think might happen if we did not have any state and local governments and all decisions were made at the Centre ?
• (b) Define federalism.
• (c) What are the three levels of the government ? What are their functions ?
• (d) Write a brief note on the three organs of the state — the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.

37. Consider the following assessment question : ‘Why does a democratic country need a constitution ?’ Which of the following answers given by your students indicate a lack of understanding of the question ?

• (a) Student D : A constitution usually contains rules that ensure that minorities are not excluded from anything that is routinely available to the majority.
• (b) Student A : A constitution lays down rules that guard against the misuse of authority by our political leaders.
• (c) Student B : A constitution gives us a set of rules on the basis of which a country is to be governed.
• (d) Student C : A constitution ensures that a dominant group does not use its power against less powerful groups.

38. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : A scrapbook is an effective way of making students learn about the different types of vegetation present in various regions of the world through pictures. Reason (R) : A scrapbook must be assessed only by the cost of different materials used in it.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

39. What kinds of questions can students be asked in order to test their factual knowledge ?

• (a) Strategic knowledge
• (b) Knowledge of subject-specific skills
• (c) Knowledge of classifications and categories
• (d) Knowledge of terminologies

40. Rosy drew a picture of a woman as a nurse and a man as an engineer. On asking the reason behind it, she replied, ‘women make better nurses because they are more patient and gentle, whereas science requires a technical mind and women are not capable of dealing with technical things’. What does Rosy’s statement reflect ?

• (a) Gender typing
• (b) Gender discrimination
• (c) Gender stereotype
• (d) Gender constancy

41. Some students of Class VI question that if the Earth is not flat, then how are maps showing everything as flat ? What will be the best way to address this question ?

• (a) Ask them to find out the reason themselves
• (b) Showing the globe to the students
• (c) Showing the maps to the students
• (d) Showing animatedly how maps and globes resemble our Earth

42. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Social Science has a strong correlation with Arts. Reason (R) : Paintings, sculptures, prehistoric artifacts, etc. represent proof of many domains of Social Sciences.

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

43. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Statement A : The nature of Social Science is evidence-based, empirical and verifiable. Statement B : Its study often leads to multiple interpretations of a single event.

• (a) A is false, but B is true.
• (b) Both A and B are true.
• (c) Both A and B are false.
• (d) A is true, but B is false.

44. To familiarise students about election procedure in India, which one of the following would be the best pedagogical method ?

• (a) Screening a documentary on a local election
• (b) Inviting an expert for a lecture
• (c) Organizing an election in the class for class representatives
• (d) Asking students to conduct survey in their neighbourhood about election

45. The best possible practice for sensitizing students towards the life of tribals and nomadic pastoralists would be :

• (a) a group discussion on tribes and nomadic pastoralists.
• (b) textbook reading.
• (c) lecture and seminar.
• (d) screening a movie or documentary on Bakarwals.

46. While students are engaged in a group discussion on uses of water, a teacher should use the blackboard in which of the following manner ?

• (a) Listen to the students but not necessary to record.
• (b) Recording every word said in the discussion.
• (c) Noting responses of students who are considered bright in the class.
• (d) Arranging responses around concepts, themes and issues.

47. A teacher takes students of upper primary classes to the District Court, after finishing the lesson on ‘Criminal Justice System’. Which of the following objectives is/are most appropriate for the visit ? A. To provide experience of the functioning of courts and interact with lawyers, judges and staff on the roles they play. B. To show the challenges of seeking justice and create awe of the system. C. To scare students by showing difficulties faced by those implicated in various cases and encourage law keeping. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B and C
• (b) Only A
• (c) Only B
• (d) Only C

48. Which of the following activities would help children to critically think about women’s work in society ? A. Asking students to write slogans emphasizing the importance of equality between men and women. B. Asking students to observe how much leisure time men and women have respectively and to think about why that is so. C. Showing them data regarding how many girl students get to attend schools and asking them to talk about the impact that might have on their job opportunities. Choose the correct option :

• (a) B and C
• (b) Only A
• (c) Only C
• (d) A and B

50. A teacher writes expected learning objectives for her lesson plan as : ‘Students will be able to compare a weekly market with a shopping complex’. This objective will require students to demonstrate their :

• (a) Analysis
• (b) Knowledge
• (c) Understanding
• (d) Application

51. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : As the indigo trade grew, commercial agents and officials of the Company began investing in indigo production. Reason (R) : Attracted by the prospect of high profits, numerous Scotsmen and Englishmen came to India and became planters.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

52. The increased demand for Indian textiles in European markets in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries led to the following changes for Indian weavers : A. Expanding crafts of spinning, bleaching and dyeing B. Increased independence in working of craftspersons C. Variety in designs and increased creativity of craftspersons D. Working on a new system of advance payments from agents Choose the correct option :

• (a) C and D
• (b) A and B
• (c) B and C
• (d) A and D

53. Which of the following statements are true about Buddha’s teachings ? A. Our sufferings and unhappiness are a result of our past births. B. Our sufferings and unhappiness are a result of our cravings and desires. C. All believers had to accept and follow the teachings of Buddha for a happy life. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B and C
• (b) A and B
• (c) A and C
• (d) B and C

54. Jyotirao Phule’s book of 1873 on the dismal conditions of ‘lower’ castes was dedicated to :

• (a) Anti-slavery activists of American Civil War.
• (b) Brahmo Samaj reformers.
• (c) Bhakti singers.
• (d) Nationalists of anti-colonial movement of India.

55. Consider the following statements : A. By the second half of the nineteenth century, people from within the non-Brahmin castes began organising movements against caste discrimination and demanded social equality and justice. B. The Satnami Movement in Central India was founded by Ghasidas who worked among the leather workers and organised a movement to improve their social status. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Both A and B are false.
• (b) Both A and B are true and B is an example of A.
• (c) Both A and B are true, but B is not an example of A.
• (d) A is true, but B is false.

56. We know very less about tribal groups in the medieval period because :

• (a) they came into limelight only after the British established their rule.
• (b) they were isolated and lived in seclusion.
• (c) they were not living in areas where medieval rulers ventured.
• (d) they did not keep written records so there is less information.

57. Who among the following reinterpreted verses from Quran to argue for women’s education ?

• (a) Hajara Beebi Ismail
• (b) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
• (c) Mumtaz Ali
• (d) Begum Anis Qidwai

58. “In the register of God’s creation, since her account did not fall under the column of men, how did she gain from all of her excellent qualities ?” For whom was this passage written in the thirteenth century ?

• (a) Gautami
• (b) Rudramadevi
• (c) Raziyya
• (d) Didda

59. Which of the following statements is/are true about technology used in the twelfth century ? A. Arches were constructed to transfer the weight of the superstructure. B. The centre of the arch was called the base stone. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only B
• (b) Both A and B
• (c) Neither A nor B
• (d) Only A

60. In which of the following Palaeolithic sites, were tools made of limestone found ?

• (a) Brahmagiri
• (b) Hunsgi
• (c) Inamgaon
• (d) Koldihwa

61. Which one of the following is not true for Mahajanapadas regarding the collection of regular taxes ? 1

• (a) Usually tax on crops was fixed at (half) 2 of what was produced.
• (b) Herders were expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce.
• (c) There were taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.
• (d) Hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the Raja.

62. The Ilbert Bill was opposed in 1883 because : A. Indians opposed the Bill as it gave a free hand to the British government to have trials of Indians without evidence. B. Britishers opposed the Bill as Indians could take up trial of British or European people. C. the Bill sought equality between British and Indian judges. D. the Bill was racist towards Indian people. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Only D
• (b) A and D
• (c) B and C
• (d) Only C

63. Consider the following statements with reference to post-independence India : Assertion (A) : Despite constitutional recognition of equality before law, some Indians are more equal than others. Reason (R) : The ideals set out in the Indian Constitution have not yet been fulfilled. Choose the correct option :

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
• (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

64. Below are two statements A and B in the context of Khilafat Movement. A. In 1920, the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan (Khalifa). B. Indian Muslims were keen that the Khalifa was not allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman empire. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A is false, but B is true.
• (b) Both A and B are true.
• (c) Both A and B are false.
• (d) A is true, but B is false.

65. The Supreme Court has interpreted Right to food, Right to privacy and Right to pollution-free water and air under the ambit of which Fundamental Right granted to Indian citizens ?

• (a) Article 14
• (b) Article 20
• (c) Article 21
• (d) Article 19

66. “Indian secularism is different from secularism practised in the USA.” Identify the correct options from below which identify the differences between the two. A. In USA, neither the state nor religion can interfere in each other’s matters. B. In the Indian Constitution, there is a provision for Protection of Minority Rights. C. Both USA and India maintain strict separation between state affairs and religious affairs. D. In USA, state can allow religious reforms, unlike India. Choose the correct option :

• (a) C and D
• (b) A and B
• (c) A and C
• (d) B and C

67. The term “All persons are equal before the law” means : A. that all the citizens regardless of their socio-economic status have to obey the same law. B. no person can be discriminated against, in the eyes of the law, on the grounds of race/colour, religion, caste or gender. C. inequalities cease to exist. D. it ensures fair opportunities and a life of dignity for all the citizens. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, B and D

68. The work performed by a homemaker goes unnoticed and unpaid as compared to the official work performed by an office going lady who gets salary and respect. Examine the possible reason behind this :

• (a) Patriarchal set-up of Indian society
• (b) Devaluation of household work
• (c) Less time taken for household work
• (d) Overvaluation of official work

69. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? I II Work Forms of Employment A. Mason – Daily wage labourers B. Domestic worker – Casual workers C. Vegetable vendor – Self-employed D. Supervisor in – Businesspersons a shop Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, C and D
• (b) A and B
• (c) A, B and C
• (d) A, B and D

70. The cities have witnessed increasing rural-urban migration which has resulted in growth of slum areas near the industrial sites. The reasons for this type of migration are : A. Deterioration in living standards in urban areas B. Disruption of rural labour market C. Decreased agricultural productivity D. Increased skilled workforce in rural areas Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) B and C
• (c) A, C and D
• (d) A, B and D

71. Which among the following services can be included in the ‘Public Services’ ? A. Police Services B. Judicial Services C. Educational Services D. Construction Services Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, B and D

72. Which of the following incidents are identified as violative of ‘The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989’ ? A. Violence by ‘upper caste’ people against Scheduled Caste people. B. Forcing a member of a Scheduled Caste community to eat obnoxious substance. C. Allowing non-tribal timber merchants to exploit tribal land. D. Marrying a member of Scheduled Caste community. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) A, C and D
• (d) A, B and D

73. “The Mid-day meal scheme has helped reduce caste prejudices among students and promoted social justice.” Explain the statement by choosing the correct option. A. Children of all castes eat together. B. In many places, Dalit women are employed to cook meals. C. Enrolment of poor children in schools has increased many times. D. Reduced the dropout rates in schools. Options :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) A, C and D
• (d) A, B and D

74. Which among the following provisions ensures independence of Indian Judicial system ? A. The legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges B. Fixed tenure of judges C. Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of judges D. The President administers the oath to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) A, C and D
• (d) A, B and D

75. Being prejudiced towards someone implies : A. To judge them negatively. B. To consider them superior. C. To disrespect those who are different. D. To discriminate against members of a group. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, B, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) B, C and D
• (d) A, C and D

76. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Federal system fulfils the needs and demands of the cultural diversities in India. Reason (R) : It establishes multiple levels of governance in the country.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

77. During a class activity, the teacher asked students to select dolls which identified closely with Adivasis. Most of the students picked up dolls wearing colourful clothes, head gear and in dancing postures. What does this behaviour demonstrate ?

• (a) Progressiveness
• (b) Prejudice
• (c) Stereotype
• (d) Discrimination

79. Choose the correct statements about the globe from the following : A. Longitudes and latitudes are drawn on the globe. B. It is tilting on its axis. C. It is a true model of the Earth. D. It is oval in shape. Choose the correct option :

• (a) A, C and D
• (b) A, B and C
• (c) A, B and D
• (d) B, C and D

80. An imaginary line drawn on a globe to divide it into two equal parts is known as the ___________.

• (a) Arctic Circle
• (b) Tropic of Cancer
• (c) Tropic of Capricorn
• (d) Equator

81. Natural vegetation varies from place to place. Why do evergreen trees grow near equatorial region ? Choose the appropriate reason from the following :

• (a) Low rainfall and high temperature
• (b) Moderate rainfall and low temperature
• (c) Heavy rainfall and high temperature
• (d) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall

84. Sea caves are formed in coastal areas. Select the suitable reason for formation of sea caves :

• (a) Man made activity
• (b) Falling of rocks
• (c) Wind erosion
• (d) Erosion and deposition by waves

85. Choose the false statement from the following statements on ‘Energy Resources’.

• (a) Tidal energy is exhaustible.
• (b) Wind energy is non-polluting.
• (c) Solar energy is renewable energy.
• (d) Biogas causes greenhouse effect.

86. Stratosphere has ideal conditions for flying aeroplanes. Choose the correct reason :

• (a) Free from clouds and related weather phenomena
• (b) Windy conditions
• (c) Low air pressure
• (d) High air pressure

87. Which of the following means of transport is cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances ?

• (a) Airways
• (b) Roadways
• (c) Railways
• (d) Waterways

88. Gulf Stream is a warm ocean current because it ________.

• (a) gets heated by hot springs
• (b) originates near the equator
• (c) gets heated from underground
• (d) moves from poles to equator

90. Suggest the type of resources we should use more, in order to save our environment.

• (a) Human made resources
• (b) Abiotic resources
• (c) Renewable resources
• (d) Non-renewable resources

91. A teacher divided learners into groups, and asked them to do a quiz about ‘elephants’ before reading a story about them. The objective of the teacher is to :

• (a) write a text review.
• (b) test their memory.
• (c) give peer feedback.
• (d) generate interest in a topic.

92. In a language classroom, a student is disturbing the class. To handle this disruptive student, the teacher should :

• (a) depend on the parents to offer remedies.
• (b) report the behaviour of the student to the school authority.
• (c) address the diligent students.
• (d) first talk to the children to offer remedies.

93. When students “brainstorm ideas, organise, draft, edit and revise their work,” which skill does this process reflect ?

• (a) Writing skill
• (b) Listening skill
• (c) Speaking skill
• (d) Reading skill

94. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Reading and writing skills help in critical thinking at the primary level. Reason (R) : Critical thinking is a sub-skill of reading and writing.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

95. Language skills are best learnt :

• (a) if they are dealt with in an integrated manner.
• (b) only through written tests and assignments.
• (c) if the teacher focuses on one skill at a time.
• (d) with the help of challenging and mechanical language drills.

96. To assess whether students have understood how to use the narrative skill, a teacher should ask students to :

• (a) correct the mistakes in the use of describing words.
• (b) read a story and answer comprehension-based questions.
• (c) circle the verbs and adjectives in the text.
• (d) share an incident when they were surprised.

97. A teacher of Class VII is facilitating the reading of books other than the prescribed textbooks. She is promoting their :

• (a) Extensive reading
• (b) Guided reading
• (c) Shared reading
• (d) Intensive reading

98. The principal asked the language teacher to select the textbooks and other resources for the new session. While selecting them, which one of the following is not relevant ?

• (a) Level of the students
• (b) Conceptual complexity and density of material
• (c) Learning needs and languages known to children
• (d) Adaptability of the books and resources

99. The teacher developed the criteria to monitor the use of language materials by learners. Which criteria are most important and helpful in monitoring the use of material ?

• (a) Observation, feedback sessions and written reports
• (b) Checklist, assumptions and learning outcomes
• (c) Usability, repetition and production of utterances
• (d) Present, prepare and practice the material

100. A teacher showed a movie with the captions to learners in Class VI. The movie is based on one of the chapters in the textbook. The movie with captions on will encourage :

• (a) the students to watch more such movies.
• (b) listening strategies by verbal clues and to appreciate the actions of actors, and to write a review.
• (c) active viewing and listening.
• (d) listening strategies, active viewing, and motivating the students to use authentic language material.

101. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : A child in his early childhood stage uses more verbs than nouns and ignores the grammar rules. Reason (R) : They lack vocabulary range.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

102. A child shares her language classroom experiences with her mother and says that sometimes we cover our eyes and the teacher asks us to pick an object out of a bag. Then we have to try to describe it. It’s a really good way to learn. This comment shows the child’s preference of learning. Identify her preference.

• (a) I remember language well when I copy it.
• (b) I remember language well when I see it.
• (c) I remember language well when I hear it.
• (d) I remember language well when I move.

103. Read the example of what a learner does and choose the strategy that matches the example. “If I don’t know what something means, I look it up.”

• (a) Confused state of mind
• (b) Focusing on collocations
• (c) Using opportunities for practice
• (d) Consulting reference materials

104. A diagnostic test is used to assess :

• (a) and rank learners in order of achievement.
• (b) learners’ strong and weak points in language.
• (c) learners’ ability to recognise their own language mistakes.
• (d) learners’ ability to summarise the main points in a text.

105. A proficiency test always assesses :

• (a) the multisensory learning experiences.
• (b) the language of daily conversation.
• (c) the language that students have been taught.
• (d) the level of language that learners have reached.

136. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : English is an associate official language in India. Reason (R) : English is taught as a foreign language in Indian schools.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

137. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a language ?

• (a) Language is social.
• (b) Language is systematic.
• (c) Language is static.
• (d) Language is symbolic.

138. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : Prompting students to recall previous knowledge is important. Reason (R) : Recalling the previous knowledge helps students connect the known knowledge to the new knowledge.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

139. A teacher of Class VIII asked her learners to produce a leaflet about saving energy at home as an assignment. This task will cater to which feature of language ?

• (a) Comparative
• (b) The past tense
• (c) Positive imperatives
• (d) Question forms

140. While planning a lesson, one of the objectives is to enable learners to produce typical business communication with customers. This objective matches with one of the types of text genres listed below :

• (a) Article
• (b) Letter
• (c) Description
• (d) Report

142. When monolingual speakers move from formal to informal modes of speech within the same spoken or gestured idea, they are engaging in :

• (a) Dialects
• (b) Sociolinguistics
• (c) Code-switching
• (d) Code-mixing

143. Children’s informal interactions, friendships and relationships with others in their community are based on their use of which form of language ?

• (a) Language socialization
• (b) Enculturation
• (c) Assimilation
• (d) Accommodation

144. In the case of vocabulary use, grammar provides a pathway for learners to :

• (a) draft formal pieces of writing in higher classes.
• (b) speak in formal situations with greater accuracy and confidence.
• (c) re-tell listening inputs into oral output.
• (d) combine lexical items into meaningful and communicative expressions.

145. Which one of the following is not a classroom resource for learners in teaching-learning of language ?

• (a) Classroom procedures
• (b) Word wall
• (c) Reading corner
• (d) Classroom library

146. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : A plan for individualised learning must be created by a language teacher. Reason (R) : There is diversity in learners in the learning of new languages.

• (a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

147. In which method does the learners’ first language play a central role in teaching ?

• (a) Task-based learning
• (b) Direct method
• (c) Grammar-Translation method
• (d) Communicative language teaching method

148. Chetan’s first language was Bhojpuri. Since arriving in Tamil Nadu, he no longer speaks Bhojpuri and only speaks English with the natives. When the new second language replaces the native language, this is an example of :

• (a) Code-switching
• (b) Bilingualism
• (c) Subtractive bilingualism
• (d) Code-mixing

149. Which of the following supports a pre-reading activity ?

• (a) Teaching grammatical structures
• (b) Using paraphrasing tasks
• (c) Using a prediction task
• (d) Asking learners to summarise the text

150. Which of the following is true about remedial teaching ?

• (a) Providing extra marks to improve performance
• (b) Giving extra attention to gifted children
• (c) Showing sympathy to backward students
• (d) Providing support to improve performance